> English got its habit of French interjections from a little event in 1066 --
> but where did Polish pick it up?
Several centuries later... Around baroque, I think, maybe? My history is
pretty bad, but I remember French was very fashionable for a while.
> Do you also have latin stock phra
tangent, moved to Chat:
At 02:06 AM 4/25/05 -0400, Tamara P Duvall wrote:
> My French is non-existent, yet
> Polish insists on using French - with Polish spelling - when a
> foreign phrase describes a situation better than a {Polish one...)
English got its habit of French interjections from a
