Hi all,
The Kruskal-Wallis test is a generalization of the two-sample Mann-Whitney
test to *k* samples. That being the case, the Kruskal-Wallis test with *k*=2
should give an identical p-value to the Mann-Whitney test, should it not?
x1<-c(1:5)
x2<-c(6,8,9,11)
a<-wilcox.test(x1,x2,paired=FALSE)
Thomas Farrar wrote:
Hi all,
The Kruskal-Wallis test is a generalization of the two-sample Mann-Whitney
test to *k* samples. That being the case, the Kruskal-Wallis test with *k*=2
should give an identical p-value to the Mann-Whitney test, should it not?
x1<-c(1:5)
x2<-c(6,8,9,11)
a<-wilcox.te
, 8. September 2009 07:02
> To: Thomas Farrar
> Cc: r-help@r-project.org
> Subject: Re: [R] Equivalence of Mann-Whitney test and
> Kruskal-Wallis test with k=2
>
> Thomas Farrar wrote:
> > Hi all,
> >
> > The Kruskal-Wallis test is a generalization of the two-
inuity correction makes a
> difference).
>
> HTH, Michael
>
> > -Original Message-
> > From: r-help-boun...@r-project.org
> > [mailto:r-help-boun...@r-project.org] On Behalf Of David Scott
> > Sent: Dienstag, 8. September 2009 07:02
> > To: Thomas Farrar
> &
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