[R] Equivalence of Mann-Whitney test and Kruskal-Wallis test with k=2

Hi all, The Kruskal-Wallis test is a generalization of the two-sample Mann-Whitney test to *k* samples. That being the case, the Kruskal-Wallis test with *k*=2 should give an identical p-value to the Mann-Whitney test, should it not? x1<-c(1:5) x2<-c(6,8,9,11) a<-wilcox.test(x1,x2,paired=FALSE)

Re: [R] Equivalence of Mann-Whitney test and Kruskal-Wallis test with k=2

Thomas Farrar wrote: Hi all, The Kruskal-Wallis test is a generalization of the two-sample Mann-Whitney test to *k* samples. That being the case, the Kruskal-Wallis test with *k*=2 should give an identical p-value to the Mann-Whitney test, should it not? x1<-c(1:5) x2<-c(6,8,9,11) a<-wilcox.te

Re: [R] Equivalence of Mann-Whitney test and Kruskal-Wallis test with k=2

, 8. September 2009 07:02 > To: Thomas Farrar > Cc: r-help@r-project.org > Subject: Re: [R] Equivalence of Mann-Whitney test and > Kruskal-Wallis test with k=2 > > Thomas Farrar wrote: > > Hi all, > > > > The Kruskal-Wallis test is a generalization of the two-

Re: [R] Equivalence of Mann-Whitney test and Kruskal-Wallis test with k=2

inuity correction makes a > difference). > > HTH, Michael > > > -Original Message- > > From: r-help-boun...@r-project.org > > [mailto:r-help-boun...@r-project.org] On Behalf Of David Scott > > Sent: Dienstag, 8. September 2009 07:02 > > To: Thomas Farrar > &