Hi
If a request contains multiple Diversion headers, can one assume that
the topmost is used, or is this up to the application?
I'm looking for a MUST in one of the RFCs.
Cheers
/Roger
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Hi list!
We are testing out SIPREC in our Acme SBCs.
The goal is to be "PBX neutral" for a lack of a better word.
We are using Verba as SRS.
Basic incoming and outgoing calls work fine. SRC sends SIPREC INVITE
to SRS with metadata containing A och B parties.
Now, 100% of our customers that want
I agree with you but Nokia does not.
Basically what they are saying is this: If SDP version number is
incremented then this counts as an update/new offer period.
The problem is I can't find an RFC stating "You MUST NOT increment
version number if no change is made to the SDP"
Even Paul Kyzviat i
e response for the same INVITE transaction."
The only thing left to interpretation IMO is if version increment with
no SDP change is considered an update.
Thoughts on this?
/Roger
On Thu, Sep 17, 2015 at 10:06 PM, Roger Wiklund wrote:
> Thanks, makes sense!
>
> On Thu, Sep 17
uot;MUST ignore". However for interoperability reasons, the
> UAS can change their behavior. If I remember correctly, RFC 6337 might even
> recommend not including an SDP in that situation.
>
>
>> -Original Message-
>> From: Roger Wiklund [mailto:roger.wikl...@gmail.com]
>
irst session description
> it receives as the answer, and MUST ignore any session descriptions in
> subsequent responses to the initial INVITE."
>
> More inline.
>
>> -Original Message-
>> From: sip-implementors-boun...@lists.cs.columbia.edu [mailto:sip-
>&g
Hi list
I'm seeing the following behavior from an Aastra 400 PBX.
Flow below is ITSP to PBX
INVITE>
<100Trying
<183 w/SDP
PRACK>
<200OK (PRACK)
<180 w/SDP
>PRACK
<200OK (PRACK)
<200OK (INVITE)w/SDP
ACK>
BYE>
<200OK (BYE)
Each time the PBX sends an SDP, the version number is incremented even
tho
mbia.edu [mailto:sip-
>> implementors-boun...@lists.cs.columbia.edu] On Behalf Of Roger Wiklund
>> Sent: Thursday, June 11, 2015 10:38 AM
>> To: sip-implementors@lists.cs.columbia.edu
>> Subject: Re: [Sip-implementors] 183 with 100rel required, followed by
> 180
>> wi
; -Original Message-
> From: sip-implementors-boun...@lists.cs.columbia.edu
> [mailto:sip-implementors-boun...@lists.cs.columbia.edu] On Behalf Of Roger
> Wiklund
> Sent: June-11-15 10:38 AM
> To: sip-implementors@lists.cs.columbia.edu
> Subject: Re: [Sip-implementors] 183 with
...@lists.cs.columbia.edu
> [mailto:sip-implementors-boun...@lists.cs.columbia.edu] On Behalf Of Roger
> Wiklund
> Sent: June-11-15 10:34 AM
> To: sip-implementors@lists.cs.columbia.edu
> Subject: Re: [Sip-implementors] 183 with 100rel required, followed by 180
> with 100rel
INVITE and both PRACKs.
>
> Joel Gerber
> Network Operations Specialist - Telephone
> Telephone
> Eastlink
> joel.ger...@corp.eastlink.caT: 519.786.1241
>
> -Original Message-
> From: sip-implementors-boun...@lists.cs.columbia.edu
> [mailto:sip-implemento
only has 100rel supported with no RSeq.
Why would the PBX suddenly want to decide when to PRACK if it did not
send the 100rel required in the initial INVITE?
On Thu, Jun 11, 2015 at 3:58 PM, Roger Wiklund wrote:
> Call flow - outgoing call from PBX to ITSP.
>
> --> INVITE with
Call flow - outgoing call from PBX to ITSP.
--> INVITE with 100rel supported
<-- 100 trying
<-- 183 session progress with 100rel required
--> PRACK
<-- 200 OK on PRACK
<-- 180 ringing with 100rel supported
--> PRACK
<-- 481 Call leg/transaction does not exist
I've checked the To/From tags
gt;
>> Cisco PBX behavior seems correct here .Also after transfer is complete in
>> step 3 ,
>> Phone-A is out of picture after having BYE exchange with Phone-B and PBX.
>> So during step 4, PBX should use PAI of Phone-B.
>>
>> Regards
>> Ankur B
Hi folks!
Scenario:
ITSP--PBX--PHONE-A--PHONE-B
1. Call from PSTN via ITSP to PHONE-A (via B2BUA PBX)
2. PHONE-A answers the call
3. PHONE-A makes a supervised transfer to PHONE-B (REFER within the PBX)
4. PBX sends UPDATE/Re-INVITE to ITSP with updated SDP co
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