Hi all, I am wondering whether the != operator was designed to work the following way with AVPs:
($myavp != "myvalue") is true only if $myavp exists, and its value is not equal to "myvalue". If the AVP does not exist, the expression is false. That means, (!($myavp == "myvalue")) and ($myavp != "myvalue") may be evaluated differently, the former is true if the AVP is missing. Is it a bug or a feature? I also wonder whether the script writers know about this, for example there was a security hole in ser-oob script because of it: I was able to fake any sip uri (which was not provisioned) in the from HF of non-register request, and the authentication was successful. Thanks, Miklos _______________________________________________ Serdev mailing list [email protected] http://lists.iptel.org/mailman/listinfo/serdev
