Hi Asura,

RFC does not allows such scenerio. In some standard
implementation of stack+transaction unit, it will
leads to transaction failure.

Best Regards,
Manish Jain
--- Achint Aggarwal
<[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:

> Hi Asura!
> 
> I don't think this is a scenario compliant with
> 3261.
> It is because for the first 200OK that was sent for
> the INVITE from UAS 
> carrying sdp(an offer) information,UAC must generate
> the answer to that 
> offer in the first ACK as expected by a SIP entity
> we call UAS.
> 
> If answer sdp is sent in the 2nd ACK for the first
> 200OK then i guess it 
> leads to incomplete offer-answer model and then UAS
> may behave differently 
> to the answer in the 2nd ACK,rejecting it perhaps.
> Regards
> Achint 
> 
> 
> 
> asura_hzk <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> 
> Sent by: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
> 10/09/2006 02:41 PM
> 
> 
> To
> [email protected]
> cc
> 
> Subject
> [Sip-implementors] two ACKs for one 200 ok?
> 
> 
> 
> 
> 
> 
> 
> hello,friends ,I met a scenario like this
> 
> Sip server             Sip Client
>      INVITE(without SDP) 
>    -------------------> 
>      200 OK(with SDP) 
>    <------------------
>      ACK(without SDP) 
>    -------------------> 
>      ACK(with SDP) 
>    -------------------> 
> 
> The first ACK is just for stopping the
> retransmitting "200 ok",I thought,
> Because the second ACK should be received after the
> remote client accepted 
> the 
> call.The server is not developped by ourselves,So I
> dont know whether this 
> 
> implementation complies to RFC?
> 
> Waiting for your instruction,Thank you!
> 
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