My recollection is that Apache 2.0 is under Apache 2.0, also.

On 12 Sep 2017, at 14:04, Richard Fontana 
<rfont...@redhat.com<mailto:rfont...@redhat.com>> wrote:

Not to detract from your general point but Creative Commons has, admirably, 
placed CC0 under CC0. :-)
https://creativecommons.org/policies/#license

________________________________
From: "Matija Šuklje" <mat...@suklje.name<mailto:mat...@suklje.name>>
To: spdx-legal@lists.spdx.org<mailto:spdx-legal@lists.spdx.org>
Sent: Tuesday, September 12, 2017 8:03:01 AM
Subject: Re: New license proposal: Verbatim

Disclaimer: I haven’t read the full thread and for now don’t intend to, unless
I get a compelling reason to. I apologise if this e-mail will repeat something
already said.

All I wanted to say about this is that if we go down that rabbit hole, we will
evenutally end with the question what license the SPDX file is under (CC0-1.0)
and then ask ourselves what license CC0-1.0 in under – to which, after quickly
skimming the text of the license/waiver¹, I can’t say I found any.

So what then? Are we allowed to even put SDXP data under that CC0-1.0 if we
don’t have an explicit license to the license/waiver in the text of the
license/waiver itself? If we aren’t the whole exercise is moot.

Yes, this is an argumentum ad absurdum FWIW.

Long story short: I’d say we shouldn’t concern ourselves with the question of
the license of the license. If a condition of the license is that the text of
the license should be distributed with the code, I’d argue that is a school
example of an implied license and leave it at that.


cheers,
Matija
—
1        https://creativecommons.org/publicdomain/zero/1.0/legalcode
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