> landuse=industrial is simply > factually wrong because most of the land is not actually used for > industrial purposes.
I also agree. But how best to tag such areas then? In terms of "mapping ownership", I don't think that bears on this conversation any more than it does when tagging an area as industrial based on satellite imagery. The area is reserved for some future use related to the extraction of oil. But more to the point of my original question, how best to indicate that any particular industrial area (landuse=industrial) is *inside* the leased, and named, tract? On Mon, Oct 16, 2017 at 7:23 PM, Martin Koppenhoefer <dieterdre...@gmail.com > wrote: > > > 2017-10-16 14:05 GMT+02:00 Christoph Hormann <o...@imagico.de>: > >> On Monday 16 October 2017, Martin Koppenhoefer wrote: >> > >> > I think we don't map individual land ownership or land use rights >> > because of privacy concerns [...] >> >> No, we don't map land ownership because it is usually not verifiable >> which is partly due to privacy concerns from side of the cadastral >> legislations. In Germany for example land ownership records are not >> public, they may only be viewed by parties with a justified interest. >> >> > > if it isn't verifiable there's no question, but if it is verifiable > because the border or its description was published (not the case here > according to Dave), then we could map it. > > > > > >> This is of no relevance here of course, landuse=industrial is simply >> factually wrong because most of the land is not actually used for >> industrial purposes. > > > > +1, I agree, although landuse isn't perfectly defined on a formal level to > exclude such tagging (e.g. by using vocabulary like "primary use of land", > which wouldn't make it wrong here). > > Cheers, > Martin > > _______________________________________________ > Tagging mailing list > Tagging@openstreetmap.org > https://lists.openstreetmap.org/listinfo/tagging > > -- Dave Swarthout Homer, Alaska Chiang Mai, Thailand Travel Blog at http://dswarthout.blogspot.com
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