On Jun 2, 2020, at 1:25 PM, Joseph Eisenberg <joseph.eisenb...@gmail.com> wrote:
> >  should the entirety of the underlying area be tagged landuse=farmland or 
> > landuse=residential?
> 
> Neither: just tag the areas that are used for residences as 
> landuse=residential, and the area used for farming (mostly crops) as 
> landuse=farmland.

I can certainly appreciate how this is an easy suggestion from the author of a 
renderer, but it diminishes from our map the extent of property rights of the 
owner of the residence / farmland.  I don't want to do that, I don't believe 
others want to, either.

> In OpenStreetMap we want to map what is actually there, not the zoning or 
> legal landuse or property boundaries.

What is actually there are property rights, which is what I take as the meaning 
of "landuse=residential."  If you saying I don't have "landuse=residential" on 
property I own which I simply (but AM) using to "enjoy the trees from my 
backyard deck," I'd say you are diminishing from our map (and by extension, a 
representation of property owners' actual land use) actual landuse.  Why would 
you suggest we do that?  Property rights can't be seen from satellite imagery, 
but that doesn't mean they aren't there.

> This might change next year, just like an unmown meadow may change back into 
> scrubland, and then eventually into woodland, or how a river will meander 
> over time.

No, people own land for many years or decades, with property lines seldom 
changing anywhere near as radically as Mother Nature.

> Map what is there in reality right now, to your best ability. If people want 
> to know the legal zoning or property boundaries there are plenty of data 
> sources for that information, but OpenStreetMap is valueable because it 
> provides local knowledge of what is really there.

The "land, as it is being used, residentially" (denoted in OSM as 
landuse=residential) is really there, so I do.

SteveA
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