If each of the group scores were converted to z-scores, wouldn't the z-score mean for each group (by definition) be equal to zero? So you would end-up comparing two zero scores (with a standard deviation of 1.00 for each group).

Does your student want to know whether participants performed similarly on each test? If that's the case, might a correlation be performed across the two tests (then absolute scores and chance levels would not matter).

"Manza, Louis" wrote:

Patrick:

A student has conducted 2 memory experiments and she would like to

compare performance across the two (at least roughly).    The problem

is that 1 of them was a 2-alternative forced choice test  and the

other is 3-alternative forced choice test (both were judgments of

relative recency).  Chance performance being substantially different

between the two, a direct comparison isn't appropriate.

Does anybody have a suggestion to correct for chance?  I thought of

simply subtracting chance from each subject's score but I didn't know

if that is acceptable or if there is a better idea.

How about converting the raw scores into z-scores, and then comparing the z-scores across the 2 studies?

Cheers,

Lou

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Dr. Lou Manza 

Associate Professor of Psychology 

Lebanon Valley College 

Annville, PA 17003 

Phone: (717) 867-6193

Fax: (717) 867-6075 

E-Mail: [EMAIL PROTECTED]

"Living in the limelight, the universal dream, for those who

wish to seem.  Those who wish to be must put aside the

alienation, get on with the fascination, the real relation,

the underlying theme."

RUSH, "Limelight"

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Steven M. Specht, Ph.D.
Associate Professor of Psychology
Department of Psychology
Utica College
Utica, NY 13502
(315) 792-3171

"unanswered questions are less dangerous than unquestioned answers"
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