The best answer is probably yes.
As usual, both operant and classical conditioning functions are involved.

I'm not sure how a phobia differs from an avoidance response maintained by a 
conditioned or unconditioned stimulus.
The main question would be the function of the mother's fear response to the 
child.
Does a mother's fear stimulate fear in a child without any prior conditioning 
history?
If so, than it is an unconditioned stimulus, and the child's fear is an 
unconditioned response to it.
The phobic stimulus (talking about a shower or a snake, or a snake in the 
shower for that matter) then becomes a conditioned stimulus, and avoiding it a 
negatively reinforced operant response.
The details of the mother/child relationship are the prior conditioning history 
that makes the mother's response an effective stimulus for the child's behavior.


On Feb 8, 2014, at 12:34 PM, Jeffry Ricker, Ph.D. wrote:

> Hi all,
> 
> When I was a child, I remember my mother telling me about a friend of hers 
> who developed a "shower phobia" after watching Hitchcock's Psycho. (By 
> today's standards, the scene is quite tame, but it was terrifying to many 
> people at the time the movie was released.) It seems obvious that the woman's 
> shower phobia developed through vicarious conditioning.
> 
> A "textbook example" of vicarious conditioning I have often seen is the 
> development of an animal phobia (usually a snake or cockroach) in a child 
> after seeing his/her mother express extreme fear upon coming into contact 
> with that animal. I wonder, however, if classical conditioning is the better 
> way of describing the situation. That is, the mother's expression of terror 
> represents a UCS for the child because of the strong emotional bond between 
> them. It is not simply the degree of "empathy" the child feels for another 
> that leads to the conditioning of the fear response: the expression of fear 
> in a parent might be seen as a more direct indication of danger because of 
> the parent-child relationship.
> 
> I hope I'm communicating this in a way that makes sense. If so, what are your 
> thoughts on this: is it better conceptualized as vicarious or classical 
> conditioning?
> 
> Best,
> Jeff

Paul Brandon
Emeritus Professor of Psychology
Minnesota State University, Mankato
pkbra...@hickorytech.net




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