DaveH, do you think these two verses are referring to the same thing, or to different things? How does this affect your understanding of 1 Peter 4:5,6?

David, the reason I did not want to take the time to search out other references that support my understanding of the 1 Peter verses is that doing so always proves to be a waste of time with you. You never ever ever concede that the scriptures one presents demonstrate their interpretation to be accurate if it contradicts your admitted "LDS bias".

Dave, I still get a very strong feeling that you are on TT for a little more than just learning what Protestants believe. Sorry. I just sense it very strongly. I am praying for you, Dave. And, praying that I am responding to the real reason you are here, not your stated reason. I don't know where this is going, but hopefully the Holy Spirit does. This situation brings to mind John 3, when Nicodemus cracks a little small talk with Jesus by saying that He must be from God because of His miracles. Jesus bypasses all of the smalltalk and goes directly to the point that Nicodemus needs to hear...to enter the kingdom of heaven one must be born again.

Perry


From: Dave <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>

Charles Perry Locke wrote:

DavidH, read Ephesians 2:1. Reconcile it with 1 Peter 4:5. Are they referring to the same thing, or to different things?

DAVEH: Very good, Perry. There is some evidence to support your beliefs......Thank you for sharing it!


In Peter 4:6, I believe that the 'dead' are those who are physically alive, but spiritually dead, not those who are physically dead.


DAVEH: What I have brought to this discussion is from the Bible. Though we read the same passages, we come to dramatically different conclusions. My curiosity is why you read some passages (like 4:6) so much differently than I do. Read vs 5.......


/Who shall give account to him that is ready to judge the quick and the dead./

........Do you think Peter is speaking about the /spiritually dead/, when he mentioned the /quick and the dead/? If Peter was referring the physically dead in vs 5, then does it not follow that the dead in vs 6 are also /physically dead/? To me, it seems that inserting /spiritually dead/ is adding to Scripture. I am not condemning you for that, Perry......but, I would be interested to know if other TTers agree with you on that understanding......?


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"Let your speech be always with grace, seasoned with salt, that you may know how you ought 
to answer every man."  (Colossians 4:6) http://www.InnGlory.org

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