Here's a surprise for you, I agree. I couldn't have said it nearly as well unless BT were to have 'ghosted' it for me.
 
I trust that we'll hear from everyone on this.
----- Original Message -----
Sent: November 27, 2004 23:18
Subject: [TruthTalk] Toward a (biblical) Unilateral Covenant

The Abrahamic covenant was not made with a holy people, nor did its validity depend upon a contractual fulfillment of its conditions on the part of Abraham and his descendants. It was a unilateral covenant which depended for its fulfillment upon the unconditional grace of God and the unrelenting purpose of reconciliation which he had pledged to work out through Abraham/Israel for all peoples. In this post I would like to build on this concept of a "(biblical) unilateral covenant"; herein we shall look not only at the status of the covenant itself but begin a look back at it from the side of its fulfillment in and through Jesus Christ our Lord.
 
Two Types of Covenants:
 
There were two kinds of covenants into which God entered with Israel: bilateral and unilateral. In a bilateral covenant, that which was covenanted depended on the recipient of the covenant for its fulfillment, not on the one making the covenant. Certain obligations or conditions would need to be kept by the recipient of the covenant before the giver of the covenant would be obligated to fulfill what was promised. This type of covenant takes the form of a conditional nature; i.e., it has an "if" attached to it (we shall look at a particular covenant of this sort in due course below).
 
In a unilateral covenant, on the other hand, that which was covenanted depended for its fulfillment solely on the one making the covenant. That which was promised was given to the recipient of the covenant on the authority and integrity of the one making the covenant, entirely apart from the merit or response of the receiver. A unilateral covenant is unconditional in its nature; it has no "if" attached to it whatsoever.
 
To safeguard our thinking on this point, we should observe that an unilateral or unconditional covenant, which binds the one making the covenant to a certain course of action, may have blessings attached to it that are conditioned on the response of the recipient. Though these blessings grow out of the original covenant, they do not change the unconditional status of the covenant itself. In other words, while unconditional in nature, a unilateral covenant may call forth or prescribe unconditional obedience. When we fail to recognize that an unilateral covenant may have certain conditioned blessings attached to it, we are likely to make the mistake of thinking that conditioned blessings necessitate a conditional covenant, which then distorts, even perverts, our understanding of the nature of Israel's determinative covenants, the produce of which develops into a misunderstanding of the Gospel itself.
 
The Unilateral Covenant:
 
Perhaps it would be timely, since my desire is to communicate and not confuse, to begin our conversation by listing a couple things that the unilateral covenant is not:
  1. The unilateral covenant is not universalism. I have been sensing a reluctance on the part of some to consider this concept due to a concern that the term implies universalism. This is not about universalism. Even though the fulfillment of the covenant depended entirely upon its giver, the blessing contained therein could be rejected by its recipients. This was true before its fulfillment; it is true now on the side of fulfillment.
  2. The unilateral covenant is not a license to sin. I see this one over and over again: O, well, if its fulfillment had nothing to do with Abraham's or Israel's or our actions, then we can sin all we want to and still be in good standing with our Lord. No! A comment like this demonstrates ignorance on the part of the antagonist. It is not the unilateral covenant that provokes people to sin -- although there was a covenant alongside the covenant which did provoke and consolidate sin -- nor does it condone sin when it has been provoked. When one apprehends and then embraces the unilateral nature of the covenant it provokes a response of awe and worship, yes, even obedience -- but not sin.
With those concerns sent packing, never again to return :>), let us move now to ponder the possibility of unilateral covenant.
 
The question as to whether the Abrahamic covenant was bi-lateral or uni-lateral is at the heart of any discussions relating to its fulfillment; this, it seems to me, is a reasonable assertion. That said, if we are to gain a full and true apprehension of what Christ accomplished in his life, death, resurrection, ascension, it also seems prudent that we wrestle through this question. As I have argued in previous posts, it is my contention that Abraham was a recipient, not a participant, in the ratification of the covenant. The promises contained in the covenant depended upon God alone, not on human ability to make them happen or to earn them. In like manner the fulfillment of the covenant could happen only in and through one man, the God-man Jesus Christ.
 
Jesus Christ is the Seed to whom the covenant pointed and by whom it would be fulfilled. Galatians 3.16 -- "Now the promises were spoken to Abraham and to his seed. He does not say, 'And to seeds,' as referring to many, but rather to one, 'And to your seed (singular),' that is, Christ."
 
Back when I was posting regularly I encouraged the membership to read the OT with a view to the Seed (in Hebrew a masculine, singular noun) promised in the garden. Trace the Seed, this male offering who would crush Satan's head, and you will find the thrust of the OT, an unsevered line leading from Eve to the Messiah, conceived in the womb of Mary. Throughout the OT, and sometimes in fascinating ways, God preserved the bloodline, thus preserving the Seed from corruption. This same Seed passed through Abraham to Isaac, and from Isaac through Jacob to Judah.
 
Abraham himself was a descendant of Shem, the Son of Noah (Gen 11.10, 26). In Hebrew the word Shem means the Name. Shem was of the line of the Seed. And so, when God went into Mesopotamia (Gen 11.28), he was not looking for just any male with whom to covenant; he was looking for a specific male: the only one through whom the Seed could pass. He found this male in the son of an idol worshiper (Acts 7.1-4). It was this Abram through whom God would advance his Seed-promise via a set-apart nation (a "chosen people") that would mediate salvation to the world and restore his kingdom (Acts 3.25; Heb 11.10).
 
When we take seriously the promise given to Woman in the garden, we begin to realize that the fulfillment of this promise dare not be made contingent upon the actions of humans. Throughout OT history we see those who through faith in God sought the advancement of his kingdom; we also see in the actions of those who rejected him a violent effort to thwart God's activity on earth; whether knowingly or not, theirs was an effort to prevent the advent of the Seed. Underlying the efforts of these men was the scheming activity of Satan, whose goal it was to thwart his own judgment ("He will crush your head"): destroy the bloodline and the proto-promise will fail to see the light of day.
 
If you or anyone will give me the proto-evangel, the promise of the Seed in the garden, and agree with me that that promise was contingent not upon human activity but God for its fulfillment in and through the Christ, then I will ask you how, in the middle of this program, can you now claim that its fulfillment through the Abrahamic covenant can be anything but unilateral. It was God who preserved the Seed throughout the entire history of the Old Testament. It was via the preserving activity of God alone that the covenant came to fulfillment. To question that the Father may not have sent Jesus had not Abraham been willing to sacrifice his own son (see Izzy, 11/22), is to introduce uncertainty into the program through the means of speculation, a hypothetical question. Abraham believed God and it was credited to him as righteousness, but it was not Abraham whose credited righteousness fulfilled the covenant; it was the true righteousness of the Christ: "[W]e know that a person is not declared 'righteous' by works of the Jewish law, but through the faithfulness of Jesus the Messiah" (Gal 2.16, taking into view Paul's use of the subjective genitive). Sure the law came 430 years after the covenant with Abraham, yet the truthfulness of Paul's statement stands. Abraham did not fulfill the covenant. He could not fulfill the covenant: it was impossible for him to cause his wife to conceive. Only God could give life to a womb that was "dead." Yet the Seed passed through Abraham's circumcision (the mark of God's faithfulness to preserve and perpetuate the Seed. Get the picture?) to and through Sarah's womb to Isaac. Indeed it was via the faithful, preserving activity of God alone that the Seed passed from Abraham to Isaac, that his unilateral covenant might pass to fulfillment.
 
A Bi-lateral Covenant Alongside THE Covenant Itself.
 
I should like to return now to my opening statement and pick up on the idea that the covenant was not made with a holy people. Way back, yes, even to the garden, sin brought with it the promise of a colossal battle. A war would be waged between God's Seed and the seeds of humanity, now under the headship of Satan. In order that sin might be destroyed it had to be confined and consolidated into a place where victory over it would be decisive. It is here that I may get myself into trouble with my Jewish brothers, as I am not sure their thoughts concerning the status of the Mosaic covenant, but I believe it was the giving of the law that brought sin to the Nexus.
 
I view the Mosaic covenant as not an eternal, unilateral covenant, but a temporal, bi-lateral covenant. At its core was a very specific and narrow purpose (and again if I may to Slade and Jeff say I do not know for sure how you view this. I know that you consider the Torah to be eternal, but I am not sure as to your view of the covenant aspect of Torah. Please hang with me on this one and see how I set it forth. If I am weak here please take advantage of this invitation to help see me straight).
 
The Abrahamic covenant set the framework whereby Christ's showdown with the tyrants -- sin, death, and the devil -- might have a place to take place. The promise to Abraham was three-fold; it included land, seed, and blessing (Gen 12.1-3; 6-7; 13.14-17; 15;1-21; 17.1-4; 22.15-18). Via the covenant with Abraham God would establish a nation -- in contrast to all the other nations of the world -- through which to accomplish his plan to restore humanity to himself and bring judgment to the tyrants. God gave that nation a specific geographic location, a land to occupy "forever." He promised to bless those that bless the nation and curse those that curse it. And he promised that a royal descendent of Abraham would conquer all God's enemies forever. Through Abraham's Seed, people from all nations would receive God's eternal blessing.
 
But how was God to bring about this showdown? I would like to suggest that it was through the giving of the Law that God gave sin a name, consolidating it within the structural matrix of Israel, and that it was via this localization that he brought about its demise. The Mosaic-covenant partnership of God with Israel had the effect of intensifying the conflict of Israel with God. So long as the cords of the Abrahamic covenant were not drawn tight, and God remained at a distance, so to speak, the conflict was not very sharp, but the closer God drew near (via the Mosaic covenant), the more the human self-will of Israel asserted itself in resistance to its divine vocation. Thus the more fully God gave himself to his people, the more he forced this people to be what it actually was, what we all are, in the self-willed isolation of fallen humanity. And so, the movement of God's reconciling love toward Israel through the Mosaic covenant not only revealed Israel's sin but intensified it. God gave Moses the Law not to make Israelites holy, but to make them sinners.
 
But why then a bi-lateral covenant? What was God doing in the heart of his program, introducing a covenant alongside his covenant with Abraham? What relationship can exist between an unconditional covenant and a conditional covenant? Simply put, the unilateral, unconditional Abrahamic covenant had conditional blessings attached to it. These blessings would be obtained through faithful obedience. But obedience to what? Obedience to the Mosaic covenant. In other words, the Mosaic covenant was added alongside the Abrahamic covenant: "Why the Law then? It was added because of transgressions, having been ordained through angels by the agency of a mediator, until the seed should come to whom the promise had been made" (Gal 3.19). The Mosaic covenant was given in order to define and delineate the obedience that was required in order to obtain the blessings promised by the Abrahamic covenant. The Abrahamic covenant -- not the Mosaic covenant -- was the source of these blessings, and the Abrahamic covenant was still unconditional; it was entirely dependent on God for its eventual fulfillment, that day when "the seed" (singular) would come "to whom the promise had been made." And so we see that the unconditional, unilateral covenant had the effect of calling the Israelites to an unconditional obedience; in other words, their obedience had no bearing on the fulfillment of the covenant. And that it did; however, it did so through participation in a conditional/bilateral covenant: the Mosaic covenant.
 
I should like to state, here, that I view it as vitally important to realize/remember that the Law of Moses was given to a redeemed people, not to redeem a people. The preacher to the Hebrews said of Moses: "By faith he kept the Passover and the sprinkling of blood, so that the destroyer of the firstborn would not touch the firstborn of Israel," and of the Israelites he said, "By faith the people passed through the Red Sea as on dry land" (Heb 11.28-29).
 
With that said, the Law revealed the holiness of God. The fact that God is a holy God was made abundantly clear to Israel in the Law of Moses. But lest we be confused at this point, the holiness of God is not first a static morality; it is first a relationship between the Father and the Son in and through the Holy Spirit. Holiness speaks to the quality of that relationship: the purity, the harmony, the beauty of that relationship. Out of those qualities comes the basis for morality. It is in this light that the great commandments shine brightest: Love God and love your neighbor and you will fulfill the law -- in other words, you will be holy (and that, my friends, is the basis of relational theology).
 
All the requirements laid on the nation of Israel had in view this holy character of God. The holiness of God as revealed in the Law became the test of human thoughts, words, and actions; and anything that failed to conform to the revealed holiness of God was sin. This is exactly what Paul had in mind when he wrote, "For all have sinned, and fall short of the glory of God" (Rom 3.23). God's desire was to draw his creation into the kind of relationship that he had (has) throughout eternity with his Son. In order for that to happen (in the fulfillment of the Abrahamic covenant) that which separated his creation from him and prevented that relationship from occurring had to be isolated and destroyed. In their failure to meet the conditions as laid out in the Mosaic covenant, that which prevented the Israelites from entering into holiness -- that right kind of God-like relationship -- was exposed for what it was. While it could not make the Israelites holy, the Mosaic covenant could make them sinners. This it did. And so we see that the movement of God's reconciling love toward Israel not only revealed Israel's sin but intensified it.
 
That intensification, however, is not to be regarded simply as an accidental result of the covenant, but rather as something God deliberately took into full design of his reconciling activity, for it was the will and the way of God's grace to effect reconciliation with Israel (and, by Representation, humanity) at its very worst: "The law was added so that the trespass might increase. But where sin increased, grace increased all the more, so that as sin reigned in death, even so grace might reign through righteousness to eternal life through Jesus Christ our Lord" (Rom 5.20-21). In his marvelous wisdom and love God worked out in Israel a way of reconciliation which did not depend on the worth of men and women, but made their very sin in rebellion against his holiness the means by which he bound them for ever to himself and through which he reconstituted their relations with him in such a way that their true end was fully and perfectly realized in communion with him, in his Son, through the Holy Spirit -- with holiness being the express quality of that relationship. 
 
Through the Mosaic covenant God drew Israel near to himself in such a manner that the covenant, with its way of response set out in the liturgy of atoning sacrifice, was translated into Israel's very existence as the elected servant of the Lord. We see in the Isaianic servant songs Israel as the suffering servant of the Lord drawn into close proximity to God as "the Holy one of Israel." The servant songs point ahead to the Incarnation where the Holy One of Israel and the suffering servant actually coincide. Within the structural matrix of Israel we witness the birth of Messiah, i.e., the Incarnation as God and humanity so near to each other that they are perfectly one in Jesus Christ. There in Jesus, son of Mary in Israel, the Son of God gathered up the prehistory of reconciliation in the interaction of God with Israel and the intensifying conflict of Israel with God. There in the Incarnation the fearful contradiction between God and humanity representationally embodied in Israel's conflict with God reached its climax in Jesus Christ. Throughout his earthly life Jesus embodied this fearful tension, warring against the root of evil in the human heart in enmity toward God, uncovering and decisively overcoming it in life and in atoning sacrifice on the cross.
 
In the most remarkable turn of events God used Israel's rebellion, its rejection of God's Messiah, as the very means by which to accomplish his final purpose of reconciliation in Jesus Christ. Here God dealt with human sin at the point of its ultimate denial of the saving will of God. God used Israel's rejection as the very means by which to bind humanity to Christ; "that is, that God was in Christ reconciling the world to Himself, not imputing their trespasses to them, ... For He made Him who knew no sin, sin for us, that we might become the righteousness of God in Him" (II Cor 5.19,21). Indeed, the Incarnation represents the coming of God to save Israel, and thereby humanity, in the heart of its fallen and depraved condition, where humanity was at its wickedest in its enmity and violence against the reconciling love of Christ. This he did within the matrix he established in Israel through the Mosaic covenant. Immanuel.
 
By making Israel utterly sinful through the Law, Messiah defeated sin at its worst, and in so doing crushed Satan's head. There at the cross the promised Seed did the unthinkable. There he died for Israel's, and by extension humanity's, transgressions, in substitution meeting upon himself the curse of the Law. Therefore, when Jesus cries "It is finished," it is finished indeed. In resurrection the tyrants are defeated and the unilateral covenant which depended for its fulfillment upon the unconditional grace of God which he had pledged to work out through Abraham and Israel for all peoples, is now fulfilled. By the faithfulness of Jesus Christ to the reconciling love of the Father in his unrelenting purpose of reconciliation, humanity is restored. Will we in our unilateral inclusion in Christ now live faithfully within the covenant community established by Christ himself or will we reject him, thereby throwing ourselves against the covenant love of our Father? That, it seems to me, is the (next) question.

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