Are
you saying that you were not alluding to 2 Peter 1:20? If you
were alluding to it, please define what you believe the passage refers
to.
--
slade
-----Original Message-----
From: [EMAIL PROTECTED] [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED]On Behalf Of Judy Taylor
Sent: Saturday, 15 January, 2005 12.16
To: TruthTalk@mail.innglory.org
Cc: TruthTalk@mail.innglory.org
Subject: Re: [TruthTalk] Private InterpretationThe original post is an object lesson in "private interpretation"God's Word clearly and plainly says: "SIN IS LAWLESSNESS" (1 John 3:4)John says it's not and tells me that I don't have a clue as to the practice of lawlessness so here is a contradiction.I choose to believe God's Word and IMO John has his own private interpretation of both sin and lawlessness. jhtOn Sat, 15 Jan 2005 11:46:25 -0500 "Slade Henson" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> writes:Your post (that you could have remembered writing easier than me retrieving it) is attached to this email.So we don't begin with a rabbit trail, What is your definition of Private Interpretation.
From: Judy Taylor
Sent: Saturday, 15 January, 2005 09.52
Subject: Re: [TruthTalk] Private Interpretation
If you will send me my quote in the balance and context I wrote it in Slade - I will be glad to oblige. judyt
On Sat, 15 Jan 2005 09:45:43 -0500 "Slade Henson" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> writes:What, Judy, is your interpretation of "Private Interpretation?"