Judy wrote: > Why would Jesus have to come with the > human tendency to sin?
Because those he came to save have a tendency to sin. Jesus had to enter in through the door of the flesh. We know how we can walk because he gave us his perfect example. If he was some alien instead, then how he lived was only for him and not for us. On the other hand, because I know that he was made like me, then the life he lived is the life that I can live. He condemned sin in the flesh for me. Judy wrote: > Jesus the second Adam did not have Romans 7:17 > type sin indwelling him either for if he had he would > have been ineligible as a sacrifice for he would not > have been a "spotless Lamb" The Rabbi's did not perform any internal inspections on the Passover lambs. They only looked on the outside of the lamb. The term "spotless" refers to no black hairs found on the body of a white lamb. Jesus qualified just fine as the spotless lamb of God because he never sinned. The frailty of his body of flesh did not disqualify him. Judy wrote: > I used to believe that Romans 7 described the > unregenerate man but have since learned that > Paul had been born of the Spirit (or born again) > for at least 20yrs when he wrote this. The use of present tense does not mean that he was describing his present sinful life of bondage under the law. He was using a literary device known as the historical present tense. It is a way of bringing the reader into a vivid understanding of what is being presented. People do this often. They might speak about their day yesterday when they went to the store by saying in present tense, "I see this cashier and I say..." We know that Paul was not talking about his present life in Romans 7 because he sets it all up as being about when we were in the flesh under the law (Rom. 7:5). Judy wrote: > The book of Romans is written to believers at > Rome and Paul describes his own walk here. No, he describes his walk when he was in the flesh and under the law (Rom. 7:1-13). Don't ignore the entire context of Romans, leading believers to understand holiness that exists apart from the works of the law. Judy wrote: > He worked out his own salvation with fear and > trembling and wrote that he had NOT yet attained > but he pressed on Phil 3:10-14. Rightly divide the Word, Judy. Phil. 3:10 says that he is talking about the RESURRECTION in this passage. Paul had not yet attained to the resurrection. Read Phil. 3:15 and you will see that Paul calls himself perfect. In verse 12 he had said that he was not perfect. This was concerning the resurrection. Three verses later in verse 15 he calls himself perfect. This is in regards to his morality and walk in Christ. Judy wrote: > Paul has been known to miss it. He > called the High Priest a "whited sepulchre" > and had to apologize for it; This was not a sin along the lines of Romans 7. Paul did not apologize, but simply say that if he had known he was the high priest, he would not have talked to him that way. In other words, the man was not acting like a high priest and deserved what was said to him. Even the Pharisees in this passage said that they could find no wrong in him. Judy wrote: > he also got into a fritz with Barnabus over > John Mark. Nothing wrong with this disagreement about whether their apostolic ministry trip should include John Mark. The Scriptures tell us that Paul and Silas went "being recommended by the brethren" which is suggestive that Paul was in the right concerning this dispute. Judy wrote: > For him it was a learning process > like it is for us. And so it was for Jesus too... Hebrews 5:8-9 (8) Though he were a Son, yet learned he obedience by the things which he suffered; (9) And being made perfect, he became the author of eternal salvation unto all them that obey him; Judy wrote: > However, I don't see Jesus "missing it" at all You are right. Jesus never sinned. Judy wrote: > He took our likeness upon himself but this > likeness involved the limitations of human > flesh in outward form only The following passage sounds like more than just outward likeness: Hebrews 5:7 (7) Who in the days of his flesh, when he had offered up prayers and supplications with strong crying and tears unto him that was able to save him from death, and was heard in that he feared; Jesus sounds quite human in this passage, don't you think? Crying. Tears. Fear. When God created man in his image, was it only in outward form? If not, then why thrust this restriction on God when he was made in man's image? Peace be with you. David Miller. ---------- "Let your speech be always with grace, seasoned with salt, that you may know how you ought to answer every man." (Colossians 4:6) http://www.InnGlory.org If you do not want to receive posts from this list, send an email to [EMAIL PROTECTED] and you will be unsubscribed. If you have a friend who wants to join, tell him to send an e-mail to [EMAIL PROTECTED] and he will be subscribed.
