Leviticus 27:34 The law was given to Moses for the children of Israel.  It was never intended for Gentiles.  The new testament writings of Paul make this pretty clear, at least to me.  I do not have ten commandments or six hundred rules.  I have two commandments given by my Savior to His followers.  I have trouble keeping those two.
Terry


Dean Moore wrote:

  
[Original Message]
From: Terry Clifton <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
To: <TruthTalk@mail.innglory.org>
Date: 11/3/2005 5:08:39 PM
Subject: Re: [TruthTalk] Torah & Jewish traditions

It seems to me, David, that Paul observed some of the Jewish traditions 
because he wanted to be all things to all people in order to win the 
lost.  Not because the law any longer required this.

 I am a Gentile, adopted into the family, and was never under the law. 
    

cd: Pardon my intrusion Terry- but you were condeemed by the Law and upon
belief in Christ you were brought from under the law-ever sinner is
condeemed under the law. Consider it as going to a local town and breaking
windows-before you broke the windows the law had no claim on you but after
breaking the windows the law had a claim against you.

  
I have the freedom to worship on any day of the week or every day of the 
week.  I can eat any food forbidden by the law without affecting my 
relationship to my Savior.  Why then, would one adopted into the family 
have more freedom than one who was  born a Jew?  What am I missing here?
Terry
    

 Terry the Jews do have stricter requirements then Gentiles-Paul keep the
Law blamless and still kept the feasts -as David pointed out. In Acts
15-19-21. there is a hint to the difference between Jew and
gentile-requirements. Those listed in verse 19 were problem areas that
gentiles had pertulicar problems with but Jews are required to keep the
feasts of Israel-The feasts of Tabanacles isn't fulfilled as of yet.I will
agree that there is no distiction for salvation.
  
====================================================================

David Miller wrote:

    
David Miller wrote:

      
Maybe it is you who do not understand what this
New Testament Pharisee meant when he said,
"Christ is the end of the law for righteousness"
(Romans 10:4).
          
John wrote:

      
What do you have in mind?
        
Well, you had started out by writing:

      
The church was never "right" based on its
collective understanding of the Message.
        
Yet, apostle Paul wrote that the church of the living God is the 
pillar and ground of the truth (1 Tim. 3:15).  If the church was never 
"right" in its collective understanding, then where is the truth to be 
found after Christ ascended?  My perspective is that the truth 
continues on earth, found in the body of Christ.  Hence, 1 Cor. 12 
argues that Christ is not like the mute idols which the Corinthians 
had previously followed, but rather Christ has the power of speech, 
and it is through the members of his body (his church, the collective 
of saints in a local community).

You speak of the understanding that "Christ is the end of the law for 
righteousness" as being something that would cause Jews to stop 
keeping their feast days and sabbath observances.  Yet, the very man 
who wrote this statement was, in fact, an observant Pharisee who 
continued to keep all of these things.  Therefore, it seems to me that 
your perspective of the meaning of this phrase is at odds with the 
author of the statement.  I would suggest that the word "end" here 
must have the same connotation as when Jesus said, "I am the Alpha and 
Omega."  It does not mean extinction or termination of the law, but 
rather refers to the fulfillment of the goal. It carries a meaning 
more analogous to how we speak of the "end of man," referring not to 
man's termination or removal, but rather to his ultimate purpose and 
fulfillment in life, his reason for existing.

Peace be with you.
David Miller.
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may know how you ought to answer every man."  (Colossians 4:6) 
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