At 10:45 -0700 2004-05-01, Peter Kirk wrote:
Ken, in one sense the Unicode standard does not REQUIRE anyone to do anything but only PERMITS them to do so. But in another sense, if it fails to REQUIRE anything it becomes a waste of time.
An unsubstantiated supposition.
And if it requires anything at all beyond the very basic conformance requirements, it can be presumed to require that the Latin blocks are used for Latin script, the Hebrew block for Hebrew script, and so (if and when one is defined) the Phoenician block for Phoenician script.
And if you want to write Phoenician text in Phoenician script, you can use Phoenician script for it. And if you want to write Phoenician text in Hebrew transliteration, you can use Hebrew script for it. And if you want to write Phoenician text in Latin transliteration, you can use Latin script for it.
If the Hebrew block is use for Phoenician script (not for transliteration but with masquerading fonts), that is just as much a failure to do what Unicode requires as to use the Latin block for Hebrew script with a legacy encoding.
That would be no different from using the Latin block for Phoenician script with masquerading fonts. Neither case is a "failure" of the Unicode Standard.
--
Michael Everson * * Everson Typography * * http://www.evertype.com
