On Tue, 2010-09-21 at 22:51 -0400, Francois Menard wrote: > Are you saying that the VPN server should not be in the > same subnet as the subnet to which access is sought for ?
No...I said that IF you are using IPs that are part of an existing subnet, then you WILL need to use proxy-arp to make it work. > > its basically if there is a bridge, rather than a routed > relationship between the VPN client and the VPN server ... > thus the need for Proxy-ARP in that case ? I really don't understand the question you are asking. -- ******************************************************************** * Butch Evans * Professional Network Consultation* * http://www.butchevans.com/ * Network Engineering * * http://store.wispgear.net/ * Wired or Wireless Networks * * http://blog.butchevans.com/ * ImageStream, Mikrotik and MORE! * ******************************************************************** -------------------------------------------------------------------------------- WISPA Wants You! Join today! http://signup.wispa.org/ -------------------------------------------------------------------------------- WISPA Wireless List: wireless@wispa.org Subscribe/Unsubscribe: http://lists.wispa.org/mailman/listinfo/wireless Archives: http://lists.wispa.org/pipermail/wireless/
