On 7/31/05, Susan Maneck <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
> SC: Not *public* but, "...in the world to come..."
>
> Ah yes. Let's not forget that traditionally adultery has been punished by
> stoning. And no, Jesus never explicitly did away with that, He simply
> refused to uphold a double standard which punished women and let men off
> scot free.
I've heard similar things but I don't think I've ever heard/read a
good explanation of exactly was the scope and intent of "Let he who is
without sin cast the first stone".
Was he just saving this one woman? Was he abolishing the death
penalty for adultery but not for other crimes? Was he abolishing the
death penalty altogether? Was he saying that no one should be punished
for anything.
The original commandment in Leviticus 20 says:
[10] "If a man commits adultery with the wife of his neighbor, both
the adulterer and the adulteress shall be put to death
In the New Testament, there doesn't seem to much indication one way or
another about what happened to the guy in the famous example. So I'm
not sure about the gloss you are giving it above. But I guess it makes
at least as much sense as any other.
Peace
Gilberto
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