On Jun 27, 2009, at 5:03 PM, [email protected] wrote:
I don't. Consider the state of North Dakota. Now consider the
opening scene of HAMLET. Now consider the taste of rum raisin ice
cream.
How would you "calibrate" the very great differences between the
three notions"?
I am sending electronic "scriptions" to your location. I hope they
form the notion "bait and switch" in your head. From your first set of
electronic scriptions (at 2:19), I saw these shapes on my screen:
"I believe that any two given notions are ALWAYS different to some
degree, and often VERY different. If you, a savant about the city,
hear the word 'Chicago', a stream of indeterminate, indefinite,
multiplex and transitory notions passes through your mind. One could
argue that, strictly speaking, you cannot "know" that your streaming
notion is different from what would stream through the mind of a given
non-literate Nepalese shepherd who heard 'Chicago' right now. But I
myself would accept your insistence that you DO know the two streams
of notion are different."
I produced the mental notion that your use of "very different"
referred to two different listener's interpretation of the word
"Chicago." I concluded that "very" described the degree of difference
between their notions of "Chicago," not the degree of differences in
the notions evoked by "North Dakota" and "ice cream."
Your "Meaningless" perambulation with a memory of A.C. Ewing struck me
as well beside the point.
(2) How important or crucial to your assertion is the degree of
"very"ness?"?
Again, you dodged a direct answer by switching to Gibraltar and
diabetes. Of course, "no one would deny it" when you assert that they
are "wildly different notions." But they aren't what you originally
described as example for your argument, namely, two notions of
"Chicago" or of "slavery." My original question remains unanswered:
when does "different" become "very different"?
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Michael Brady
[email protected]
http://considerthepreposition.blogspot.com/
