>The conclusion you present is wrong. Aristotle's 'imitation' has a broader
application . It is accepted fact among serious philosophers.
Boris Shoshensky

In the passage I quoted, The Philosopher attributed the instinct for imitation
to the pleasure humans take from learning.

Does he ever attribute it anything else ?  Where?

It's occurred me that this is really a nifty idea - as it explains why most
imitations are only attractive the first time they're seen.

And the attraction humans have for learning is really remarkable, isn't it?
Too bad it usually takes a back seat to the human needs for security and
social status.





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