Two parties cannot agree in a contract to take away the privacy right of
a third. Art 6 I c) only refers to obligations with regulatory power,
not private agreements.
So if a state my company is subject to makes a valid law that requiresa
certain type of processing, that is binding. If I am bound by a contract
with a contract, that is not a valid reason for processing in accordance
with Art 6 I c). It is really easy, actually...
Volker
Am 29.05.2018 um 22:00 schrieb Ronald F. Guilmette:
In message <f4fd7e89-f816-a3b4-471a-b405632bf...@key-systems.net>,
Volker Greimann <vgreim...@key-systems.net> wrote:
If you buy land, there is a legal requirement to get yourself
registered. This legal basis is sufficient grounds for data processing
under the GDPR under Art 6 I c) ("processing is necessary for compliance
with a legal obligation to which the controller is subject").
I am very glad that you have explicitly clarified this exception to the
GDPR rules, as it allows me to ask a question which has, quite frankly,
befuddled me ever since this whole GDPR versus WHOIS lunacy began.
As I understand it, the binding contractual obligations which all individual
domain name registrants have committed to include the requirment to provide
accurate WHOIS data, with the understanding that this information will be
published.
Also and similarly, as I understand it, domain name registrars and registries
(with the exception of the ccTLDs) have all contractually committed themselves
(to ICANN) to actually publish this data.
Could someone please explain to me then how these pre-existing contractual
obligations somehow fall outside of the exception stated in GDPR Art 6 I c?
In what sense are these pre-existing contractual obligations not "legal
obligations", as defined, presumably, within the GDPR framework?
Regards,
rfg
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