On 5/24/07, Gruss Gott <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
> I'll try to be more clear on my point: he played a possible racially
> offensive song on the public airwaves.  I'm not addressing how it was
> created, who brought it up first, etc.

Just pointing out he sponsored the audio not the video.
Why is it racist? Answer that please.

> I'm making the comparison to Imus: both talk radio hosts repeated a
> possible racially offensive piece on the public airwaves that they did
> not, themselves, create.  Both have denied that they did it because
> they're racist.  Both have a history of 'walking the line' and
> saying/playing/repeating possibly racially offensive pieces in the
> past.

The Imus event happened about a month after this parody. Obama thought
it was funny and Sharton is OK with it.
Yet you claim it's racist but don't know why.

Imus used a term on his own that was questionable. Rush did a parody
of an op-ed nobody cared about. Rush didn't use any of his own words,
he used the article. To be mad at him you have to be mad at the
original author. Why don't you get that?


> One was abandoned by his broadcaster and his advertisers, the other was not.
>
> So my question is, what, as a society, should we be saying: the Imus'
> treatment was correct or that Rush's treatment was correct?

We as a society should be smart enough to see the difference.

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