I brought up the subject of divorce. Wasn't it true that in the original texts, divorce was never permissable, but in the KJV it was altered so that James could divorce his current wife? I believe I heard this in a history class in college.
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In a roundabout way of answering the question, I'll point to something
discussing the various historical revisions the bible.
http://www.atheists.org/church/realbible.html
I'll acknowledge that it's a biased source, but it still provides some
historical background.
One quote:
"We may note one other oddity concerning the "received text" used to produce
the King James Bible: Because the Book of Revelation was never popular in
the Greek Orthodox Church, it was hard for Erasmus to find Greek MSS of the
book. Indeed, he could not find a single MS that contained the last six
verses. Consequently, he had to make up his own Greek - translating the last
six verses into Greek from the Latin Vulgate! To this day no Greek text has
ever been found that reproduces Erasmus' version of the last six verses of
me Bible, yet it is the source of the King James rendering. "
Another quote:
"The Greek version reflects a Hebrew text more than a thousand years older
than the Hebrew text used as the standard for the King James."
Even if you disregard the political decisions of which books and chapters to
include in the bible, there are still fundamental problems with translation.
Concepts in one language don't always translate easily to another language.
Anyone who knows another language can attest to that. For instance, there is
a German word "Schadenfreude" that roughly means "taking pleasure in the
discomfort of others". But there's no word in English to really express the
subtle nuances of it. Sadism is a common mistranslation.
I'm sure Mike can speak to this, but Scholars have debated for centuries
over the interpretations of passages in the Hebrew, and trying to bring that
over to yet another language is inevitably going to introduce vagaries.
-Kevin
> Can someone tell me why the King James version of the bible is said to be
altered to fit his own agendas?
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