Hello, all.
I would like to confirm if this is correct: do you need an to have an IP
address assigned to the same router that you want to advertise the IP's
network out via OSPF? I noticed this with my test routers where I need to
advertise say 144.20.0.0 which belongs to RouterA but is not doing OSPF with
my RouterB and instead doing static routes between them. Now Router B is
assigned the 164.x.x.x and is doing OSPF with the ISProuter asfollows:
144.20.0.0
193.x.x.x -------RouterA------STATIC------RouterB ----OSPF
-----ISP------OSPF/BGP-----Internet
204.x.x.x e1 e0 e1 e0
e0 T1's
RouterA's E1 = 144.20.1.1, 193.x.x.x and 204.x.x.x are both secondary, E0 =
207.x.x.1
RouterB's E1 = 207.x.x.2 , E0 = 164.x.x.2
RouterISP's E0 = 164.x.x.1
It seems that even if I include a network 144.20.x.x , 193.x.x.x and
204.x.x.x in RouterB's OSPF config and even though it shows as these
networks are being redistributed via OSPF when I do
A show ip route NETWORK, the ISP is not receiving these networks via OSPF's
LSAs.
So it seems that RouterB cannot advertise these networks since it does not
have any interface that belongs to these networks. And I guess configuring
loopbacks to "represent" these 3 networks is out of the question?
The reason this is set up this way is just a temporary 'TEST' if we can get
this design to work. Eventually RouterA will be replaced by a firewall which
of course does not speak OSPF.
I could not find any OSPF "rule" on what it can originate in its
advertisements in my ACRC, BSCN or Hutnik's books, unless I got it all wrong
from the beginning.
Thanks for all responses.
Elmer Deloso
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