Elmer,
If I understand you correctly, under RouterB's 'router ospf <pid>' section,
you have the following statements:
network 144.20.xxx.xxx
network 192.xxx.xxx.xxx
network 204.xxx.xxx.xxx
Is that right?
And elsewhere in RouterB's config, you have a static route for the
144.20.xxx.xxx network that points to RouterA.
In OSPF, the network statements do not mean "these are the networks I will
advertise." They represent the individual router interfaces on which the
OSPF process will communicate/form adjacencies (and the router will 'listen'
on all interfaces, unless you specify them as being passive).
Since RouterB have no interface that occupies the 144.20.xxx.xxx address
space, that statement has no real impact. It sounds like what you're
looking to do is redistribute the static route into the OSPF process.
Add:
redistribute static, or
redistribute static subnets
to your OSPF section, and get rid of the network statement for
144.20.xxx.xxx. You can also manipulate the metric you advertise the
static routes with. If you do not use the 'subnet' parameter, it will only
redistribute non-subnetted networks in classful manner. Since classful
routing is inherently evil ( :) ), I always use the 'subnets' modifier. (Be
certain that 'ip classless' is in your config... I forget which IOS
revision this became default in. Better safe than sorry.)
Hope this helps... If I've misunderstood your request, pardon my
pontification. ;)
Alan~
> ----- Original Message -----
> From: "Deloso, Elmer G (WPNSTA Yorktown)" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
> To: <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>
> Sent: Thursday, February 22, 2001 7:54 PM
> Subject: Advertising networks in OSPF
>
>
> > Hello, all.
> > I would like to confirm if this is correct: do you need an to have an IP
> > address assigned to the same router that you want to advertise the IP's
> > network out via OSPF? I noticed this with my test routers where I need to
> > advertise say 144.20.0.0 which belongs to RouterA but is not doing OSPF
> with
> > my RouterB and instead doing static routes between them. Now Router B is
> > assigned the 164.x.x.x and is doing OSPF with the ISProuter asfollows:
> > 144.20.0.0
> > 193.x.x.x -------RouterA------STATIC------RouterB ----OSPF
> > -----ISP------OSPF/BGP-----Internet
> > 204.x.x.x e1 e0 e1 e0
> > e0 T1's
> >
> > RouterA's E1 = 144.20.1.1, 193.x.x.x and 204.x.x.x are both secondary, E0
> =
> > 207.x.x.1
> > RouterB's E1 = 207.x.x.2 , E0 = 164.x.x.2
> > RouterISP's E0 = 164.x.x.1
> >
> > It seems that even if I include a network 144.20.x.x , 193.x.x.x and
> > 204.x.x.x in RouterB's OSPF config and even though it shows as these
> > networks are being redistributed via OSPF when I do
> > A show ip route NETWORK, the ISP is not receiving these networks via
> OSPF's
> > LSAs.
> > So it seems that RouterB cannot advertise these networks since it does not
> > have any interface that belongs to these networks. And I guess configuring
> > loopbacks to "represent" these 3 networks is out of the question?
> > The reason this is set up this way is just a temporary 'TEST' if we can
> get
> > this design to work. Eventually RouterA will be replaced by a firewall
> which
> > of course does not speak OSPF.
> > I could not find any OSPF "rule" on what it can originate in its
> > advertisements in my ACRC, BSCN or Hutnik's books, unless I got it all
> wrong
> > from the beginning.
> > Thanks for all responses.
> >
> > Elmer Deloso
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