agreed....to area 0 then on to the intended area
-----Original Message-----
From: Circusnuts [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED]]
Sent: 28 May 2001 15:50
To: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
Subject: Re: Wanna Be a CCIE? Try This One [7:6076]
Chuck- my answer is Yes. The traffic from the Virtual Linked psuedo-ABR
passes back to Area 0, before it's sent onto the intended Area (even if it's
directly connected).
Phil
----- Original Message -----
From: Chuck Larrieu
To:
Sent: Sunday, May 27, 2001 8:59 PM
Subject: Wanna Be a CCIE? Try This One [7:6076]
> Ever wonder what the CCIE candidates talk about on the CCIE list?
>
> The following message came through today. I thought the bright folks on
this
> list might be curious, and might want to venture an answer.
>
> Begin original question:
>
> Guys,
>
> I wonder if there is anybody who remembers the discussion on Virtual
> Links in OSPF. It was posted some time ago but I can't seem to find it.
>
> The scenario was something like this:
> ________ _______ _______
> |Area 0 | |Area1| |Area2|
> | R0 |--| R1 |--| R2 |
> |______| |_____| |_____|
>
> There is a virtual link from area 2 to Area 0 via Area1. Traffic needs to
> get to R1 in Area 1 from R2 in Area 2. Assume that the virtual link has to
> use R1 (To create the V.Link). Does the traffic flow passed R1 (in Area 1)
> to Area 0 and then back to area 1, or does the actual flow just to R1 from
> R2.
>
> I cant remember the conclusion, and I cant seem to find it on the
archives.
> Quite interesting issues.
>
> End of original question
>
>
> Chuck
>
> One IOS to forward them all.
> One IOS to find them.
> One IOS to summarize them all
> And in the routing table bind them.
>
> -JRR Chambers-
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