well, since C and D are in the same area they have the tame topology DB.
they KNOW the best route to each other and are going to use it.
the tunnel idea is kinda stupid.
first let me ask why you would want traffic between two directly connected
routers to NOT use that link?

...But anyway, i would suggest policy routing in this case, or if there is a
large  traffic volume (too much for routers C and D to process switch, make
static routes.

other options include putting C and D in their own areas, and making each a
stub, and get rid of that link between C and D. that would be the best
idea...

play with plath costs,
and you might try a virtual link as well between C and D,
but break glass only in case of emergency, if you know what i mean =P

-Peter
----- Original Message -----
From: "Kevin Schwantz" 
To: 
Sent: Tuesday, May 29, 2001 10:03 AM
Subject: Re: Wanna Be a CCIE? Try This One [7:6076]


> routerA            routerB
>                  AREA0--------AREA0
>                      |                        |
>                   routerC              routerD
>                  AREA1---------AREA1
>
>
> Since we are on the topic of OSPF, could someone help me out on the
scenario
> above?
>
> Routers A and B have interfaces  in Area 0 and Area1. I want traffic from
> routerA destined for routerD to go via router B. This is not the case in
my
> network because I realise that routerA  prefers Intra-Area routes and thus
> would route traffic to routerD via routerC.
> What tweaks must I make in order to force the traffic from routerA to
> routerD to go via routerB ? Someone suggested building a GRE tunnel
between
> routerA and routerB and then configure the tunnel to be in AREA1.
>
> Any suggestions?
>
> Kevin
>
>
> ""W. Alan Robertson""  wrote in message
> [EMAIL PROTECTED]">news:[EMAIL PROTECTED]...
> > Guys,
> >
> > The actual traffic will not be routed up to area 0...  Area 0 has been
> > extended
> > down to R2, so R2 is now a backbone router.  R2 has interfaces in 3
areas
> > now:
> > Area1, Area2, and Area0 by means of it's virtual link.
> >
> > Any traffic originating in Area2 destined for Area1 will be routed
> directly
> > by
> > R2.  This satisfies the "Interarea traffic must traverse the backbone"
> rule,
> > because R2 *is* a backbone router.
> >
> > This is not theory...  It is fact.
> >
> > Alan
> >
> > ----- Original Message -----
> > From: "Andrew Larkins"
> > To:
> > Sent: Monday, May 28, 2001 10:13 AM
> > Subject: RE: Wanna Be a CCIE? Try This One [7:6076]
> >
> >
> > > agreed....to area 0 then on to the intended area
> > >
> > > -----Original Message-----
> > > From: Circusnuts [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED]]
> > > Sent: 28 May 2001 15:50
> > > To: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
> > > Subject: Re: Wanna Be a CCIE? Try This One [7:6076]
> > >
> > >
> > > Chuck- my answer is Yes.  The traffic from the Virtual Linked
psuedo-ABR
> > > passes back to Area 0, before it's sent onto the intended Area (even
if
> > it's
> > > directly connected).
> > >
> > > Phil
> > >
> > >
> > > ----- Original Message -----
> > > From: Chuck Larrieu
> > > To:
> > > Sent: Sunday, May 27, 2001 8:59 PM
> > > Subject: Wanna Be a CCIE? Try This One [7:6076]
> > >
> > >
> > > > Ever wonder what the CCIE candidates talk about on the CCIE list?
> > > >
> > > > The following message came through today. I thought the bright folks
> on
> > > this
> > > > list might be curious, and might want to venture an answer.
> > > >
> > > > Begin original question:
> > > >
> > > > Guys,
> > > >
> > > > I wonder if there is anybody who remembers the discussion on Virtual
> > > > Links in OSPF. It was posted some time ago but I can't seem to find
> it.
> > > >
> > > > The scenario was something like this:
> > > > ________  _______  _______
> > > > |Area 0   |  |Area1|    |Area2|
> > > > |    R0    |--| R1     |--| R2     |
> > > > |______|   |_____|    |_____|
> > > >
> > > > There is a virtual link from area 2 to Area 0 via Area1. Traffic
needs
> to
> > > > get to R1 in Area 1 from R2 in Area 2. Assume that the virtual link
> has
> > to
> > > > use R1 (To create the V.Link). Does the traffic flow passed R1 (in
> Area
> > 1)
> > > > to Area 0 and then back to area 1, or does the actual flow just to
R1
> > from
> > > > R2.
> > > >
> > > > I cant remember the conclusion, and I cant seem to find it on the
> > > archives.
> > > > Quite interesting issues.
> > > >
> > > > End of original question
> > > >
> > > >
> > > > Chuck
> > > >
> > > > One IOS to forward them all.
> > > > One IOS to find them.
> > > > One IOS to summarize them all
> > > > And in the routing table bind them.
> > > >
> > > > -JRR Chambers-
> > > > FAQ, list archives, and subscription info:
> > > http://www.groupstudy.com/list/cisco.html
> > > > Report misconduct and Nondisclosure violations to
[EMAIL PROTECTED]
> > > FAQ, list archives, and subscription info:
> > > http://www.groupstudy.com/list/cisco.html
> > > Report misconduct and Nondisclosure violations to [EMAIL PROTECTED]
> > > FAQ, list archives, and subscription info:
> > http://www.groupstudy.com/list/cisco.html
> > > Report misconduct and Nondisclosure violations to [EMAIL PROTECTED]
> > FAQ, list archives, and subscription info:
> http://www.groupstudy.com/list/cisco.html
> > Report misconduct and Nondisclosure violations to [EMAIL PROTECTED]
> FAQ, list archives, and subscription info:
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