Would Moving one of the AREA 1 Routers into (a new area) Area2 Fix this?

-----Original Message-----
From: Michael L. Williams [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED]]
Sent: Wednesday, May 30, 2001 6:54 PM
To: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
Subject: Re: Wanna Be a CCIE? Try This One [7:6076]


Good call........ I was going moreso by the diagram.......

"EA Louie"  wrote in message
[EMAIL PROTECTED]">news:[EMAIL PROTECTED]...
> Read carefully - routerA and routerB both have interfaces in Area0 and
> Area1, which makes them both ABRs
>
> -e-
>
> ----- Original Message -----
> From: "Michael L. Williams"
> To:
> Sent: Wednesday, May 30, 2001 9:01 AM
> Subject: Re: Wanna Be a CCIE? Try This One [7:6076]
>
>
> > Wait a second...... where are the ABRs?    How can a router that
> > communicates routes from one OSPF area to another not be an ABR?  Am I
> > missing something?
> >
> > Mike W.
> >
> > "Kevin Schwantz"  wrote in message
> > [EMAIL PROTECTED]">news:[EMAIL PROTECTED]...
> > > routerA            routerB
> > >                  AREA0--------AREA0
> > >                      |                        |
> > >                   routerC              routerD
> > >                  AREA1---------AREA1
> > >
> > >
> > > Since we are on the topic of OSPF, could someone help me out on the
> > scenario
> > > above?
> > >
> > > Routers A and B have interfaces  in Area 0 and Area1. I want traffic
> from
> > > routerA destined for routerD to go via router B. This is not the case
in
> > my
> > > network because I realise that routerA  prefers Intra-Area routes and
> thus
> > > would route traffic to routerD via routerC.
> > > What tweaks must I make in order to force the traffic from routerA to
> > > routerD to go via routerB ? Someone suggested building a GRE tunnel
> > between
> > > routerA and routerB and then configure the tunnel to be in AREA1.
> > >
> > > Any suggestions?
> > >
> > > Kevin
> > >
> > >
> > > ""W. Alan Robertson""  wrote in message
> > > [EMAIL PROTECTED]">news:[EMAIL PROTECTED]...
> > > > Guys,
> > > >
> > > > The actual traffic will not be routed up to area 0...  Area 0 has
been
> > > > extended
> > > > down to R2, so R2 is now a backbone router.  R2 has interfaces in 3
> > areas
> > > > now:
> > > > Area1, Area2, and Area0 by means of it's virtual link.
> > > >
> > > > Any traffic originating in Area2 destined for Area1 will be routed
> > > directly
> > > > by
> > > > R2.  This satisfies the "Interarea traffic must traverse the
backbone"
> > > rule,
> > > > because R2 *is* a backbone router.
> > > >
> > > > This is not theory...  It is fact.
> > > >
> > > > Alan
> > > >
> > > > ----- Original Message -----
> > > > From: "Andrew Larkins"
> > > > To:
> > > > Sent: Monday, May 28, 2001 10:13 AM
> > > > Subject: RE: Wanna Be a CCIE? Try This One [7:6076]
> > > >
> > > >
> > > > > agreed....to area 0 then on to the intended area
> > > > >
> > > > > -----Original Message-----
> > > > > From: Circusnuts [mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED]]
> > > > > Sent: 28 May 2001 15:50
> > > > > To: [EMAIL PROTECTED]
> > > > > Subject: Re: Wanna Be a CCIE? Try This One [7:6076]
> > > > >
> > > > >
> > > > > Chuck- my answer is Yes.  The traffic from the Virtual Linked
> > psuedo-ABR
> > > > > passes back to Area 0, before it's sent onto the intended Area
(even
> > if
> > > > it's
> > > > > directly connected).
> > > > >
> > > > > Phil
> > > > >
> > > > >
> > > > > ----- Original Message -----
> > > > > From: Chuck Larrieu
> > > > > To:
> > > > > Sent: Sunday, May 27, 2001 8:59 PM
> > > > > Subject: Wanna Be a CCIE? Try This One [7:6076]
> > > > >
> > > > >
> > > > > > Ever wonder what the CCIE candidates talk about on the CCIE
list?
> > > > > >
> > > > > > The following message came through today. I thought the bright
> folks
> > > on
> > > > > this
> > > > > > list might be curious, and might want to venture an answer.
> > > > > >
> > > > > > Begin original question:
> > > > > >
> > > > > > Guys,
> > > > > >
> > > > > > I wonder if there is anybody who remembers the discussion on
> Virtual
> > > > > > Links in OSPF. It was posted some time ago but I can't seem to
> find
> > > it.
> > > > > >
> > > > > > The scenario was something like this:
> > > > > > ________  _______  _______
> > > > > > |Area 0   |  |Area1|    |Area2|
> > > > > > |    R0    |--| R1     |--| R2     |
> > > > > > |______|   |_____|    |_____|
> > > > > >
> > > > > > There is a virtual link from area 2 to Area 0 via Area1. Traffic
> > needs
> > > to
> > > > > > get to R1 in Area 1 from R2 in Area 2. Assume that the virtual
> link
> > > has
> > > > to
> > > > > > use R1 (To create the V.Link). Does the traffic flow passed R1
(in
> > > Area
> > > > 1)
> > > > > > to Area 0 and then back to area 1, or does the actual flow just
to
> > R1
> > > > from
> > > > > > R2.
> > > > > >
> > > > > > I cant remember the conclusion, and I cant seem to find it on
the
> > > > > archives.
> > > > > > Quite interesting issues.
> > > > > >
> > > > > > End of original question
> > > > > >
> > > > > >
> > > > > > Chuck
> > > > > >
> > > > > > One IOS to forward them all.
> > > > > > One IOS to find them.
> > > > > > One IOS to summarize them all
> > > > > > And in the routing table bind them.
> > > > > >
> > > > > > -JRR Chambers-
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