Thanks for the reply John. I was a bit bemused by it too. I suspect I've either missed the point completely or it's about redistribution, but I had thought about tunnelling too. I've reread through the lab itself and realise that I've misread it - the whole OSPF AS *is* connected together and the point is to redistribute into EIGRP to other routers in the EIGRP AS. My mistake.
I would like to understand though whether it is possible, regardless of this lab to connect OSPF Areas to Area0 via other than another OSPF Area and a virtual link! cheers and thanks for the thoughts - any ideas on the non-ospf transit area would be interesting, or to be slapped down and told I misunderstand completely would be useful likewise! Danny >Hmm.... interesting. > >If you *didn't* connect your area 1 to the other ospf area 0, you could >redistribute ospf into eigrp on R1 and then from eigrp to ospf on R2. >Is that an option? > >The ospf process on R1 wouldn't even need to be aware of area 0 if it's >the only area existing on the left hand side of your diagram. > >Another option occurs to me but I've never attempted it, I don't have >any idea if it would work, and who knows the chaos that might ensue if >you try it. Could you set up an ip-over-ip tunnel over the eigrp link >and place that tunnel in area 0? > >Attempt that at your own risk. I'm not sure what effect it will have >on routing. It may quickly turn into a quagmire depending on which >routes you're learning from eigrp. > >I hope someone else posts a simpler, more elegant solution. To be >honest, I'm not exactly certain what you're trying to accomplish. Can >you explain more about the goal of this scenario? Do you know the skill >they're trying to test with this problem? > >Good luck! > >John Message Posted at: http://www.groupstudy.com/form/read.php?f=7&i=26387&t=26377 -------------------------------------------------- FAQ, list archives, and subscription info: http://www.groupstudy.com/list/cisco.html Report misconduct and Nondisclosure violations to [EMAIL PROTECTED]
