The statement that provoked my question is from RFC 1721. They say "Subnet masks are also necessary for implementation of "classless" addressing, as the CIDR work proposes"
thus the question "if a routing protocol supports subnet mask does that automatically mean that it can do CIDR? ( I think the answer is no because CIDR means that you could have masks stilling bits from the newtork ID and the router may not like this .... I also think that historically subnetting and Variable Length subnet masking came before CIDR. But those are just speculations. I don't have examples / references to support my arguments and I would like to know if I am correct.) Thanks, Pierre-Alex Message Posted at: http://www.groupstudy.com/form/read.php?f=7&i=37033&t=37031 -------------------------------------------------- FAQ, list archives, and subscription info: http://www.groupstudy.com/list/cisco.html Report misconduct and Nondisclosure violations to [EMAIL PROTECTED]
