Hello Folks, I need help understanding this logic.
I have Catalyst 6509 switch with 4 Vlans. I have done configuration which is recommended by Cisco. Here is the details. VLAN 2 Users: Subnet 10.0.2.0/24 VLAN 3 Servers Subnet 10.0.3.0/24 VLAN 4 PBX Application Subnet 10.0.4.0/24 VLAN 5 Management Vlan Subnet 10.0.5.0/24 Catalyst 6509 has dual IOS. The catalyst IOS for switch and Cisco IOS for the router blade. I have assigned IP address 10.0.5.2 to the SC0 interface and assigned IP address 10.0.5.1/24 to VLAN 5 that I created in cisco IOS. By doing this I can telnet to both from my PC which is in user vlan. I believe I will also have to do a default gateway command in SC0 interface and gateway should be pointing to 10.0.5.1 (VLAN 5's IP address) in order for me to telnet the catalyst IOS from different VLANS. Am I approaching the correct path? Please advise. I am not using VLAN 1 as not recommended by Cisco. What disadvantage I would have had if I would choose VLAN 1 for the management. I am also using a totally different subnet for the management per guidelines, but I could have put SC0 in a VLAN 2 and could have used the IP address from the user VLAN 2 and by doing that I would not have to create a VLAN 5. Is there any real advantage for using a totally separate VLAN for the management purpose. Some guidelines say that it is really secured by using a different VLAN other than VLAN 1 or any other VLANS which are used for Users, Servers etc. Can someone explain how? Regards, Ali Message Posted at: http://www.groupstudy.com/form/read.php?f=7&i=39192&t=39192 -------------------------------------------------- FAQ, list archives, and subscription info: http://www.groupstudy.com/list/cisco.html Report misconduct and Nondisclosure violations to [EMAIL PROTECTED]
