On Mon, Mar 18, 2024 at 2:38 AM John R Levine <jo...@taugh.com> wrote:

> On Sun, 17 Mar 2024, Dotzero wrote:
> >> Whenever mail is sent, there is a risk that an overly permissive source
> >> may send mail which will receive a DMARC pass result that was not, in
> >> fact, authorized by the Domain Owner. These false positives may lead
> >> to issues when systems interpret DMARC pass results to indicate
> >> a message is in some way authentic. They also allow such unauthorized
> >> senders to evade the Domain Owner's requested message handling for
> >> authentication failures.
>
> > I have a problem with this 2nd paragraph and believe it is factually
> > incorrect. The Domain Owner has in fact authorized the message(s) as a
> > result of an overly permissive approach. I would suggest that in fact any
> > resulting DMARC pass is technically NOT a false positive because it is
> > authorized by the overly permissive approach..
>
> Seems to me we it depends on what you think "authorized" means.  My sense
> is I told you it's OK to send the message, yours seme to be that any host
> on an IP in the SPF record or anyone who steals your DKIM key is
> authorized by definition.
>
> Is there some other wording that can make the difference clear?
>
> Regards,
> John Levine, jo...@taugh.com, Taughannock Networks, Trumansburg NY
> Please consider the environment before reading this e-mail. https://jl.ly



Here's a quick stab at some modified wording for the second paragraph:

Whenever mail is sent, there is a risk that an overly permissive source
may send mail which will receive a DMARC pass result that was not, in
fact, intended by the Domain Owner. These results may lead
to issues when systems interpret DMARC pass results to indicate
a message is in some way authentic. They also allow such unauthorized
senders to evade the Domain Owner's intended message handling for
authentication failures.

Michael Hammer
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