At 08:51 AM 11/15/01 -0600, jim clark wrote: >The Ho in the case of means is NOT about the variances, so the >analogy breaks down. That is, we are not hypothesizing >Ho: sig1^2 = sig2^2, but rather Ho: mu1 = mu2. So there is no >direct link between Ho and the SE, unlike the proportions >example.
would it be correct then to say ... that the test of differences in proportions is REALLY a test about the differences between two population variances? >Best wishes >Jim > >============================================================================ >James M. Clark (204) 786-9757 >Department of Psychology (204) 774-4134 Fax >University of Winnipeg 4L05D >Winnipeg, Manitoba R3B 2E9 [EMAIL PROTECTED] >CANADA http://www.uwinnipeg.ca/~clark >============================================================================ > > > >================================================================= >Instructions for joining and leaving this list and remarks about >the problem of INAPPROPRIATE MESSAGES are available at > http://jse.stat.ncsu.edu/ >================================================================= _________________________________________________________ dennis roberts, educational psychology, penn state university 208 cedar, AC 8148632401, mailto:[EMAIL PROTECTED] http://roberts.ed.psu.edu/users/droberts/drober~1.htm ================================================================= Instructions for joining and leaving this list and remarks about the problem of INAPPROPRIATE MESSAGES are available at http://jse.stat.ncsu.edu/ =================================================================
