In article <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>, Alex <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote: >if there are F0 independent and uniform values in [0, 1], then their >expected minimum is around 1/F0. >My question is: >How would you prove this justification? This should probably be fairly >easy to compute expected minimum, but I am missing it.
What is the probability that the minimum of n uniform [0,1]'s is greater than some number x? From this you can write down the CDF, and the rest is relatively easy. [I'm assuming you have had a statistics course that taught you how to do expected values.] -- My real email address is mcintosh ##at## research ##dot## telcordia ##dot## com . . ================================================================= Instructions for joining and leaving this list, remarks about the problem of INAPPROPRIATE MESSAGES, and archives are available at: . http://jse.stat.ncsu.edu/ . =================================================================
