On 11 Mar 2012, at 21:44, R AM wrote:

This discussion has been long and sometimes I am confused about the whole point of the exercise.

To explain that if we are machine then the mind-bpdy problem reduces partially into a justification of the laws of physics from computer science/arithmetic.



I think the idea is that if comp is true, then the future content of subjective experience is indeterminated?

It depends of the protocols, but eventually if comp is true then some first plural indeterminacy exists and can be shared, like QM illustrates. But if comp is correct QM has to be a theorem of arithmetic concerning the relations between a machine and its possible universal neighbors.




Although comp might seem to entail 100% determinacy, just the contrary is the case. Is that correct?

I guess acw have answered all this. Comp entails third person determinacy (cf the working of a computer) and some local and global indeterminacy due to self-duplication. You have to do the thought experiments by yourself to grasp the meaning of this.



However, I think that if comp is true, future experience is not only indeterminate, but also arbitrary: our future experience could be anything at all.

Prove this, and you refute comp.
The UD Argument might leads to that, but actually it leads more to QM than to a contradiction.


But given that this is not the case, shouldn't we conclude that comp is false?

That would be rather premature. There is a measure problem, but it is an interesting one. It put light on a possible origin of both consciousness and the appearance of matter and laws. We discuss that measure problem since the beginning of this list. All "everything- type" of theories have a measure problem. It is akin to the modal inflation in logical realism.

Bruno



http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/



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