On Thu, Feb 13, 2014 at 12:34 PM, Edgar L. Owen <edgaro...@att.net> wrote:

> Liz,
>
> 'Any point' for observers in different frames is well defined by
> relativity theory itself. The very fact that relativity theory can provide
> 2 equations, one for each separate frame, for any SINGLE relativistic
> scenario requires that to be true.
>

By "point" do you mean "point in time"? If so, are you saying that even for
observers at different points in space, "relativity theory itself" provides
a unique definition of which points on their worldlines are at the same
"point" in time? This is obviously not true, since there is no preferred
definition of simultaneity in relativity theory itself. You may think you
can deduce the *need* for some "true" definition of simultaneity in order
to make sense of relativity's claims, but objective simultaneity is clearly
not a part of the theory itself in the sense that it won't appear in any
textbooks on the theory.




> That is what I've continually pointed out to Jesse that's gone over his
> head, that relativity itself uses a common computational background for all
> frames.
>

It hasn't gone over my head, I have responded over and over again by
pointing out that any mathematical statement about relativity has an
analogue in a purely geometric scenario involving things like tape measures
on a 2D plane. Just as we can describe the twin paradox with different
inertial frames that disagree about which pairs of events have the same
t-coordinates, we can describe things on the plane using different
Cartesian coordinate systems which disagree about which pairs of markings
on the measuring tapes have the same y-coordinate. Does your ill-defined
terminology of "common computational background" refers to the notion of a
unique objective frame-independent analogue of "same t coordinate" (the
analogue being 'same p-time')? If so, my point as always is that you
*don't* similarly conclude that the different Cartesian coordinate systems
in the measuring tape scenario require a "common computational background"
in the sense of an objective coordinate-independent analogue of "same
y-coordinate". And if a perfectly analogous argument involving coordinate
systems in space leads to a conclusion that even you would agree is
erroneous, that implies there is something wrong with the logic of your
argument involving frames in spacetime.

Even though I've asked you over and over again whether you think there's
any quantitative fact about SR and different frames' descriptions of the
twin paradox scenario which DOESN'T have a direct analogue in the tape
scenario, you've never given a yes-or-no answer to this question, let alone
pointed to a specific quantitative fact you think has no analogue. From
your continued ducking of this question, I guess you probably recognize on
some level that this analogy is problematic for your position.




> If it didn't it couldn't properly describe relativistic scenarios from the
> separate frame dependent views of all involved observers.
>

Do you think algebraic geometry (i.e. geometry where we describe shapes in
the context of a 2D coordinate system) "can't properly describe geometric
scenarios from the separate views of all involved coordinate systems"?


>
> This hidden and unstated assumption of relativity itself is the basis of
> p-time.
>

If it's "hidden and unstated" than it isn't part of "relativity theory
itself" in its standard textbook form. It's rather a conclusion that you
draw about the implications of the theory.


>
> The dozen or so examples I've given to Jesse show how to compare different
> relativistic frames in a manner completely consistent with relativity
>


But I've given my own example that shows that your assumptions about p-time
lead to a direct contradiction. You objected to the idea that "events which
occur at the same point in spacetime must have the same p-time", which was
one of the assumptions I used to derive a contradiction, but clearly you
had misunderstood what I meant by "same point in spacetime" since in
https://groups.google.com/d/msg/everything-list/jFX-wTm_E_Q/GZznkprLuo8Jyou
said "I pointed out maybe a week ago with examples why your notion of
"a same point in SPACEtime" is not the same as a same point in p-TIME. They
are the same is true only when A and B are at the same point in SPACE". But
as I explained in my response at
https://groups.google.com/d/msg/everything-list/jFX-wTm_E_Q/6NoHUw_x0tsJ ,
same point in spacetime DOES always include the notion of "same point in
SPACE", this is always how I have used "same point in spacetime" and it's
obvious this must be true from the operational definition I gave (how could
the time for a light signal to reflect off the other observer and return
approach zero if the distance wasn't approaching zero too?).

So, now that I have clarified that to say events A and B happened "at the
same point in spacetime" means that in any relativistic coordinate system
they would have identical time coordinates AND identical spatial
coordinates, would you now agree that if A and B happened at the same point
in spacetime, they must have been at the same point in p-time? If you do
agree with that, then this is sufficient to derive a contradiction when
combined with your other assumptions (that p-time simultaneity is
transitive, that clocks at rest relative to each other in the absence of
gravity that are synchronized in their rest frame must be synchronized in
p-time too), as I showed with the Alice/Bob/Arlene/Bart example in
https://groups.google.com/d/msg/everything-list/jFX-wTm_E_Q/pxg0VAAHJRQJ .
So if you would agree that events A and B having the same position
coordinates AND the same space coordinates implies they are simultaneous in
p-time, please then look over that example and tell me if you disagree with
any of the numbered conclusions 1-4 about simultaneity in p-time.

Jesse

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