Hi Bruno,

  Is the measure idempotent <http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Idempotence>?


On Thu, Jul 3, 2014 at 1:14 PM, Bruno Marchal <marc...@ulb.ac.be> wrote:

>
> On 03 Jul 2014, at 06:51, Richard Ruquist wrote:
>
> Quantum measure is the result of solving Schrodinger's Eq.
> yielding a different probability for each quantum state
>  and a different measure for each different scenario
> unlike the invariant measure of the reals.
> Do you disagree?
> Richard
>
>
>
> The quantum measure is a measure on solutions of an equation, like square
> normed functions or operators in a linear (Hilbert) space (like in both QM
> and functional analysis). The measure on the reals is a measure on real
> numbers. With comp, the measure is on the relative states. It is really a
> measure on the transition <a I b>. In quantum mechanics it is given by [<a
> I b>]^2, but with comp this must be explained by a measure on all the
> computations going from a mind state corresponding to observing 'a to a
> mind state of observing 'b, taking into account the fact that an infinity
> of universal numbers justifies those transitions (= makes them belonging to
> a computation).
>
> The protocol of the iterated WM-duplication is a very particular case. The
> first person histories with computable sequence like "WWWWWW...", or
> "WMWMWMWMWM... ", becomes the white rabbits event, and the norm is high
> incompressibility (a very strong form of randomness).
>
> The ultimate protocol is  the "logical" structure of the sigma_1
> arithmetic. By the dovetailing on the reals, it mixes a random oracle with
> the halting oracle so that we can expect a "non-machine" for the first
> person truth. But it is already a non machine, from the machine view, by
> simple incompleteness.
>
> The interview of the löbian machine does not provide the measure calculus
> (Plato-Plotinus 'bastard' calculus with the Plotinus lexicon), but it
> provides the logic of the measure one, from which the measure calculus +
> the arithmetical constraints)  should be derivable (and the measure one
> admits a quantization confirming things go well there).
>
> Bruno
>
>
>
> On Thu, Jul 3, 2014 at 12:44 AM, Russell Standish <li...@hpcoders.com.au>
> wrote:
>
>> On Thu, Jul 03, 2014 at 12:23:35AM -0400, Richard Ruquist wrote:
>> > On Wed, Jul 2, 2014 at 10:34 PM, Russell Standish <
>> li...@hpcoders.com.au>
>> > wrote:
>> >
>> > > On Tue, Jul 01, 2014 at 04:30:52PM -0400, Stephen Paul King wrote:
>> > > > Hi Russell,
>> > > >
>> > > > Ah! I don't quite grok it completely, but thank you for this
>> example. We
>> > > > had to assume an already existing measure on the Reals. Where does
>> that
>> > > > come from?
>> > > >
>> > >
>> > > The standard measure on the reals is based on the observation that we
>> > > expect the set of real numbers starting with 0.110... to have the same
>> > > measure as those starting with 0.111... That would be a reasonable
>> > > default assumption for most purposes.
>> >
>> >
>> > The measure obtained by compression of the reals in binary form is
>> close to
>> > the quantum mechanic measure, but not exact.
>> > In fact, the quantum measure varies with the scenario, whereas the
>> measure
>> > of the reals is invariant.
>> > Richard
>> >
>>
>> What do you mean? What is this "quantum measure"?
>>
>> --
>>
>>
>> ----------------------------------------------------------------------------
>> Prof Russell Standish                  Phone 0425 253119 (mobile)
>> Principal, High Performance Coders
>> Visiting Professor of Mathematics      hpco...@hpcoders.com.au
>> University of New South Wales          http://www.hpcoders.com.au
>>
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