On 31 March 2015 at 11:11, Stathis Papaioannou <stath...@gmail.com> wrote:

> On Tuesday, March 31, 2015, LizR <lizj...@gmail.com> wrote:
>
>> On 31 March 2015 at 01:08, Stathis Papaioannou <stath...@gmail.com>
>> wrote:
>>
>>> On Monday, March 30, 2015, LizR <lizj...@gmail.com> wrote:
>>>
>>>> On 30 March 2015 at 19:26, Stathis Papaioannou <stath...@gmail.com>
>>>> wrote:
>>>>
>>>>> Fading qualia in the setting of normal behaviour, if logically
>>>>> possible, would destroy the common idea of consciousness that we have.
>>>>> It would mean, for example, that you could have gone blind last week
>>>>> but not realise it. You would look at a painting, describe the
>>>>> painting, have an emotional response to the painting - but lack any
>>>>> visual experience of the painting. If that is possible, what meaning
>>>>> is left to attribute to the word "qualia"?
>>>>>
>>>>> Well, it would mean that comp is false, because the electronic
>>>> replacements are not generating any conscious experience despite having
>>>> their I/O matched to the rest of the brain. That would mean there is
>>>> something else involved, something that isn't generated by computation.
>>>>
>>>
>>> But if that were so it would allow the above described situation, where
>>> you could lack qualia but it would make no difference to you, rendering
>>> the idea of consciousness meaningless.
>>>
>>> I thought the idea of fading qualia was that it *would* make a
>> difference? Like you find yourself unable to appreciate some particular
>> sensation as you used to? Otherwise why "fading" ?
>>
>
> Obviously qualia can fade; if your ulnar nerve is damaged, then sensation
> in your little finger will be reduced. But the interesting idea is if comp
> is false and there is a decoupling between qualia and behaviour. Your ulnar
> nerve is damaged and it is replaced with a functionally perfect artificial
> nerve. This means that, for example, your speech centre, through a series
> of neural relays, will receive the usual input and you will declare that
> you have normal sensation and pass any objective test of motor and sensory
> function in your hand. However, it turns out that, contrary to
> comp/functionalism, perfect function is not enough to reproduce the qualia,
> so your hand is actually numb - it's just that there is no subjective or
> objective evidence of the numbness. But in that case, what possible meaning
> could be given to the word "numb"? This is the sort of weirdness that
> denial of comp can lead to.
>
> Hmm! Yes, OK - Put like that, it does seem weird.

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