On Tue, May 5, 2015 at 1:12 AM, meekerdb <[email protected]> wrote:

>  On 5/4/2015 2:54 PM, LizR wrote:
>
>  On 5 May 2015 at 00:12, Telmo Menezes <[email protected]> wrote:
>
>>  On Mon, May 4, 2015 at 1:03 PM, LizR <[email protected]> wrote:
>>
>>> Yes, very. I haven't read the paper yet but I hope when they say you pay
>>> for votes that isn't meaning a plutocracy, but from some share of equally
>>> distributed "voting capital" or something similar? So people can spend
>>> their voting power on whatever they're concerned about?
>>>
>>
>>  The idea is very simple. You can buy x votes for (x * c)^2 dollars. In
>> the end, all the money that was spent on buying votes is equally
>> distributed by the voters. So the more the plutocracy spends its financial
>> capital to influence policy, the more wealth equality you get. The author
>> proposes a mathematical proof that such a system would stabilize on an
>> equal distribution of political power.
>>
>>  Of course, there are many real world details that could make this idea
>> fail miserably, but it's fun to think about.
>>
>>    Yes, if it's real money being spent it's kind of similar to the
> current system, at least in countries where unlimited pre-election spending
> is allowed. A lot of the time the rich - who own the media and so on - buy
> the result they want, as per Mark Twain's comment.
>
>  Where does the money go once it's bought votes?
>
>
> It's redistributed.  So after the Koch brothers spend $889,000,000 in the
> next election to cast 29,816 votes, each of the 129 million voters will get
> back $6.88 (plus the $1 they put in plus a share of whatever other big
> spenders put in).  Actually I think the Bros will be better off buying
> attack ads with their billion.
>

Which is a better situation than we have now, where they can just buy the
laws for much cheaper.

Telmo.


>
> Brent
>
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