On Fri, Sep 2, 2016 at 11:27 AM, <agrayson2...@gmail.com> wrote:

>
>
> On Friday, September 2, 2016 at 11:07:09 AM UTC-6, Bruno Marchal wrote:
>
>>
>> On 31 Aug 2016, at 20:30, agrays...@gmail.com wrote:
>>
>>
>>
>> On Wednesday, August 31, 2016 at 11:17:22 AM UTC-6, Bruno Marchal wrote:
>>>
>>>
>>> On 30 Aug 2016, at 18:23, Alan Grayson wrote:
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>> On Friday, June 10, 2016 at 6:10:41 PM UTC-6, Bruce wrote:
>>>>
>>>> On 11/06/2016 3:56 am, Bruno Marchal wrote:
>>>> > On 10 Jun 2016, at 03:02, Bruce Kellett wrote:
>>>> >> On 10/06/2016 1:41 am, Bruno Marchal wrote:
>>>> >>> On 09 Jun 2016, at 01:28, Bruce Kellett wrote:
>>>> >>>> In other words, FPI is just the statement that Alice and Bob have
>>>> >>>> to look to find out which of the (+,+'), (+,-'), (-,+'), or (-,-')
>>>> >>>> worlds they are in. I don't think that actually adds anything
>>>> >>>> significant to the discussion.
>>>> >>>
>>>> >>> That eliminates the physical spooky action at a distance which are
>>>> >>> necessarily there in QM+collapse.
>>>> >>
>>>> >> You have yet to prove that -- assertion is not proof.
>>>> >
>>>> > By defining world by "closed for interaction", locality follows from
>>>> > linearity.
>>>>
>>>> Bruno, you specialize in these oracular pronouncements that mean
>>>> absolutely nothing.
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>> This is just insulting, and add nothing but confusion.
>>>
>>> Avoid ad hominem patronizing tone and focus on what you do not
>>> understand or disagree with.
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>> "locality follows from linearity" -- what a load of
>>>> total nonsense.
>>>>
>>>
>>>
>>> OK, I was quick there, but I provided more details in *many* other
>>> posts. Please read most of a thread, not just a a sentence here and there
>>> and then adding to the prejudices.
>>>
>>> To be slightly less short, and explain, I was talking in the frame of
>>> the non collapse formulation of QM, and I was just saying that without any
>>> collapse, the linearity of the tensor product with the linearity of the SWE
>>> ensure that at any time everything is local, even computable, in the global
>>> third person picture.
>>>
>>> Basically, "physical non locality" needs to put some amount of 3p sense
>>> in the collapse of the wave, where in the MWI (and in arithmetic) the
>>> indeterminacies and the non local appearances are purely epistemic (first
>>> person or first person plural).
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>>> > There are 1p statistical interference, but Bell's inequality
>>>> violation
>>>> > is accounted without FTL, which is not the case with collapse, or
>>>> > Bohmian particules.
>>>> > I gave the proof with others, and eventually you admitted that there
>>>> > was no real action at a distance. But with one world, those are real
>>>> > action at a distance. So I think the point has been made.
>>>>
>>>> There is no FTL mechanism in action in one world or many: Bell
>>>> non-locality obeys the no-signalling theorem. You have to get over
>>>> thinking that non-locality means FTL action.
>>>>
>>>
>>> Here's an article of interest. FWIW, I don't believe the no-signalling
>>> theorem puts this issue
>>> to rest. AG
>>>
>>>
>>> In all the thread we (me and Bruce) were agreeing with this,
>>>
>>
>> I haven't read every post in this thread, but from Bruce's remark above,
>> he apparently believes that you believe in FTL transmission of information,
>> and that since the no-signal theorem denies that, your claim (or any claim
>> of FTL transmission) is falsified.
>>
>>
>>
>> Guess what, you were completely wrong.
>>
>> I was the one who denies the FTL.
>>
>
> *My text may have confused you. I thought you went to the MWI to deny FTL
> in this one-world. That's what I meant. But Bruce seems to deny FTL in this
> world, by saying the phenomenon is just a property of the wf, and in his
> appeal to the no-signalling theorem; as if to say, if you can't send
> information, there can't be FTL. But here "send information" in the context
> of no-signalling theorem just means you can't send a message of choice. AG *
>
> *What does FPI stand for? TIA, AG*
>
>>
>> The article I posted denies that the apparent contradiction between
>> relativity and non locality can be resolved simply by appealing to the
>> non-signalling theorem, which Bruce seems to assert.
>>
>>
>> I was the one asserting that with the MWI, even the Bell's violation does
>> not force FTL, even without signalling possible.
>>
>> My point, shared by others in the thread,  was that with the MWI restores
>> both 3p determinacy, and 3p locality. The point of Clark and Bruce is that
>> even with the MWI, Bell's inequality violation proves that nature is 3p non
>> local, and that action at a distance exists.
>>
>>
>>
>>
>>
>> I can only go by his words. So I don't see that the article I posted is
>> irrelevant to the discussion. AG
>>
>>
>> It was Bruce who claims that Bell's inequality violation shows that FTL
>> exists, even without possible signalling.
>>
>
> *Then why does he tell you to "get over it", it being FTL? AG*
>

*Maybe he means that FTL exists in this world, so why resort to the MWI to
deny it. But then why does he bring up the no-signalling theorem? AG *

>
>
>> I agree that FTL (fast than light influence which not necessarily
>> exploitable for transmission of information) still exist, and I agree that
>> it is logically possible, but people believing in that have the obligation
>> to give evidence, and my point is that in the MWI, Bell's violation is no
>> more an evidence, as Bell supposes definite outcomes in definite realties,
>> which makes no sense in the MWI, nor in computationalism more generally.
>>
>
> *I tend to agree that Bell's results assume one world. AG *
>
>>
>> Bruno
>>
>>
>>
>>> The question was specifically about some possible remnant of physical
>>> action at a distance in the MWI. We both know that the non signaling does
>>> not put light on this. Genuine physical action at a distance obviously
>>> exist in the QM-with-collapse, by Bell's inequality violation, but Bell's
>>> argument does not show action at a distance( in any unique branch if that
>>> exist), in the MWI.
>>>
>>> What we have is the contagion of superposition, and they never go
>>> quicker than interaction, that is at sub-speed of light.
>>>
>>> And that is why we can define, or represent the "world" by set of
>>> space-time events closed for interaction.
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>>  http://people.uleth.ca/~kent.peacock/FQXi_v2.pdf
>>>
>>>
>>> Interesting (but out of  topic indeed).
>>>
>>> Bruno
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>>> >>> That adds nothing, indeed. That shows only that the paradoxes came
>>>> >>> only from the axioms some have added to fit their philosophical
>>>> >>> prejudices.
>>>> >>
>>>> >> So you add axioms to suit your philosophical prejudices just as
>>>> >> others do -- how does that make your position any better than that
>>>> of
>>>> >> others?
>>>> >
>>>> > No. I subtract axioms.
>>>> >
>>>> > Bohr's axioms: SWE + COLLAPSE + number (add,mult)      (+
>>>> > unintelligible theory of mind)
>>>> >
>>>> > Everett's axioms SWE + Number (add,mult).       (+ mechanist theory
>>>> of
>>>> > mind)
>>>> >
>>>> > Your servitor's axioms: Number(add,mult).        (+ mechanist theory
>>>> > of mind)
>>>> >
>>>> > And I don't pretend that is true, only that digital mechanism makes
>>>> > this necessary and testable (modulo the usual "malin génies").
>>>>
>>>> All the above sets of axioms lead to non-local theories. You may claim
>>>> just to subtract axioms, but that is as much choosing your axioms as
>>>> any
>>>> other procedure. And you have yet to show that you get the physics of
>>>> this world out of your theory --and demonstrate the necessary stability
>>>> of the physics. Just wishing evil genies away does not actually banish
>>>> them.
>>>>
>>>> Bruce
>>>>
>>>>
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>>> http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>>
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>> http://iridia.ulb.ac.be/~marchal/
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>>
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