> On 6 Oct 2019, at 13:03, Bruce Kellett <bhkellet...@gmail.com> wrote:
> 
> On Sun, Oct 6, 2019 at 7:23 PM Bruno Marchal <marc...@ulb.ac.be 
> <mailto:marc...@ulb.ac.be>> wrote:
>> When Alice and Bob are separated, and measure their particles state, the MWI 
>> only ask that whatever they found will be correlated. In the world where 
>> Alice finds “up", Bob will find "down", and in the world where Alice finds 
>> “down”Bob will find “up”. But without any FTL action at a distance.
> 
> 
> OK. So what is the explanation for this aspect of MWI? I am asking for a 
> local causal physical explanation for the observed facts. Nothing else will 
> suffice at this point.
> 
> 
> Aspect took a long amount of work to ensure that light has not the time to 
> bring the correlation, and as the choice of “Alice”’s direction of spin 
> measurement is arbitrary, unless you bring t’Hooft super determinism, the 
> influence has to be FTL. Not so in the MWI.
> 
> The influence is non-local, that does not imply FTL. If there is no non-local 
> influence in MWI, how is the observed correlation formed? Just answer the 
> question.
> 
> 
>> Well, I have looked at  your "explanations", and at a lot of other MWI 
>> so-called explanations, and not one of them has been satisfactory. These 
>> "explanations" are either hopelessly vague, or they misunderstand what is 
>> required, or, like Wallace, they simply wimp out of any explanation at all. 
>> If you can do better, then do it. But despite years of asking, you still 
>> have not come up with any credible explanation.
> 
> It is the same as the one in Price FAQ, or in  Tipler’s paper, and it is 
> coherent with Deutsch-Hayden one, if recatsed in a many histories approach.
> 
> And I have, on many occasions, shown that these approaches are not successful 
> in eliminating the non-locality. Price and Tipler, indeed, just reproduce the 
> standard non-local quantum account. If you are so convinced that these papers 
> give a fully local explanation for the violation of the Bell inequalities, 
> then reproduce the argument here so that we can agree on what, exactly, we 
> are talking about.


When Alice and Bob are separated, even from just one centimetre, then it makes 
no sense to claim that they are in the same world. Alice and Bob can a priori 
find non correlated results, but they will met only their corresponding Alices 
and Bobs. 

The “fully local explanation” is known by everybody: it is the Schroedinger 
equation. If you simulate the SWE of the system Bob+Alice + their particles, on 
a computer, and you interview the majority of Alice and Bob, who met after the 
experiments, they will agree on the correlation, and on the violation of Bell’s 
inequality, despite we know that everything was local, indeed simulated by a 
Babbage machine. 

Bruno




> 
> Bruce
> 
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