On Sunday, November 10, 2024 at 10:48:50 PM UTC-7 Brent Meeker wrote:




On 11/10/2024 3:51 PM, Alan Grayson wrote:



On Sunday, November 10, 2024 at 5:46:00 AM UTC-7 John Clark wrote:

On Sat, Nov 9, 2024 at 9:40 PM Alan Grayson <[email protected]> wrote:

*  > the fact that neither member of an entangled pair has a preexisting 
spin before measurement,*



*Maybe that's true, maybe things are realistic, maybe an entangled pair of 
electrons has ONE AND ONLY ONE spin axis before a measurement. But 
maybe that's false, maybe an entangled pair has EVERY axis spin that is not 
forbidden by the quantum wave before a measurement. *


I thought the choice of measurement axis is arbitrary, and any axis can be 
used. AG
 

*The violation of Bell's Inequality cannot rule out either possibility. We 
do know that IF the world is realistic THEN it cannot be both local and 
deterministic. We also know that you will never measure the spin of an 
electron to be zero or one because that is forbidden by the quantum wave, 
instead you will always get 1/2 because the quantum wave demands that. *


CMIIAW, but I think Bell experiments are done this way; an entangled pair 
of electrons are created with zero net spin, and sent in opposite 
directions, far beyond causal distance. Then, along the same axis, one of 
the pair is measured as spin UP,  and there's a correlation with the other 
pair member measuring spin DN, so conservation of spin is satisfied. So 
there's a mystery; how can the correlation exist when the electrons are far 
beyond causal distance? Is this correct, or does Brent have the "exact" 
solution and now awaits for his Nobel prize? AG


That's an oversimplified version, one that would be satisfied in classical 
mechanics.  Try reading up on the experiment.

Brent


Please cease your BS; it's unbecoming. Where is my description of Bell 
experiments oversimplified? More important, experiments in classical 
mechanics do not, and could not imply influences at distances exceeding 
causality, other than in Newtonian gravity which we know is wrong. It's 
just a good approximation for weak fields, such as within the solar 
system.That's the core of the mystery -- apparent influences at distances 
exceeding causality -- which you claimed is explained "exactly" by some 
Hilbert space vector, or are you now backtracking on that claim? AG 

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