Overall the only real evidence of what Jesus may have said is recorded in Greek (which Jesus himself, as a Jewish peasant, most certainly did not speak). The gospels are independent theological documents written between 40 and maybe 70 or 80 years after Jesus' death. There has been a big debate in recent years among scholars about how many of the words attribributed to Jesus in the canonical gospel accounts were probably actually his, and there is now a whole set of criteria to determine this (see especially the books of Bart Ehrman). However the phrase "I and the father are One" is recorded in the Gospel of John only and probably not a single word of that book (which was written around 90 to 100 C.E.) can be attributed to Jesus himself.
--- On Sun, 8/24/08, Rick Archer <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote: From: Rick Archer <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> Subject: RE: [FairfieldLife] Re: Sunday is Janmashtami or Krishna's birthday... To: FairfieldLife@yahoogroups.com Date: Sunday, August 24, 2008, 12:18 AM From: FairfieldLife@ yahoogroups. com [mailto:FairfieldLi [EMAIL PROTECTED] com] On Behalf Of BillyG. Sent: Saturday, August 23, 2008 10:51 PM To: FairfieldLife@ yahoogroups. com Subject: [FairfieldLife] Re: Sunday is Janmashtami or Krishna's birthday... --- In FairfieldLife@ yahoogroups. com, "authfriend" <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote: > > --- In FairfieldLife@ yahoogroups. com, "BillyG." <wgm4u@> wrote: > <snip> > > When Christ Jesus said, "Me and my Father are one" he was saying > > (Hopefully he said, "I and my Father are one.") Ha, ha, don't know exactly how he said it though that sounds like better English grammar. I suspect they spoke Hebrew in those days, though not sure. I think the New Testament was translated from the Greek....... He spoke Aramaic. The Bible was translated into Greek from that language, and then from Greek from other languages, although more recently, translations have been done directly from the Aramaic. I’m not a Biblical scholar and I’m open to correction, but that’s my understanding.
