On Fri, 04 Feb 2005 19:22:52 -0500, David W. Fenton <[EMAIL PROTECTED]> wrote:
> My experience with students from all over the world have demonstrated
> to me that Andrew is simply WRONG.
[snip]
> ...the Western definition of "consonant" and "dissonant" didn't do
> it for them, since it reversed their qualitative reaction to the
> sounds.

Well, that's the point... "consonant" and "dissonant" are Western
definitions. My favorite interval to use or to hear was once called
the "diabolus in musica," second in dissonance only to the minor
second. I realize that Western music theory defines this
three-whole-step interval as "dissonant," and I can label it as such,
and even understand where Western theorists are coming from in
applying this label.

However, I *like* that particular brand of dissonance. I can like it
all I want, but in order to communicate with other Western theorists I
have to use the universally-agreed-upon common language to express my
ideas. There's no use attempting to overturn centuries of musical
thought just for the particular tastes of a few people such as myself.

-- 
Brad Beyenhof
[EMAIL PROTECTED]
my blog: http://augmentedfourth.blogspot.com
FinaleIRC (come chat!): http://finaleirc.com
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