On 29 Jun 2005 at 13:20, Aaron Sherber wrote: > At 12:58 PM 06/29/2005, David W. Fenton wrote: > >Why would anyone use a 6 for 3 beats? > > Because if you have a section in quarter notes that's going back and > forth between 4, 5, and 6 beats to the bar (for example), intermixing > 4/4, 5/4, and then 3/2 can look confusing to the player. 6/4 makes it > clear that the beat is still the quarter note.
OK, fine, but that's not 3 beats per measure. I was responding to Darcy's remarks that he wasn't familiar with 6/4 used as anything but 3 beats per measure. > I'm looking at a Hindemith score that uses 6/4 in exactly this way. > > I'm not saying I'd necessarily make the same choice, but I do > understand the rationale. If it's not one recurrent metrical structure throughout, it's not really in 3/2. That is, in a context where you're switching subdivision and accent patterns, it's fairly arbitrary which one you choose. But I was speaking to those sitautions where there *is* a pretty clear underlying 3 to the meter, but where 6/4 is used for that -- that's a practice that makes little sense to me at all. -- David W. Fenton http://www.bway.net/~dfenton David Fenton Associates http://www.bway.net/~dfassoc _______________________________________________ Finale mailing list Finale@shsu.edu http://lists.shsu.edu/mailman/listinfo/finale
