Ey! Dice Lilla que estas currando en el Childrens?

Juan Eugenio Iglesias
Postdoctoral researcher BCBL
www.jeiglesias.com
www.bcbl.eu

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----- Original Message -----
From: "jorge luis" <jbernal0...@yahoo.es>
To: "Lars M. Rimol" <lari...@gmail.com>
Cc: "Freesurfer support list" <freesurfer@nmr.mgh.harvard.edu>
Sent: Thursday, June 19, 2014 8:56:38 AM
Subject: Re: [Freesurfer] Linear Mixed Models in FS?




Yes there is numerical instability when p-values becomes extremely low and y 
our solution is OK. You are just being conservative. Your actual p-value might 
have been 1e-25 but you couldn't observe it exactly (got zero instead) because 
of numerical limitations of the Matlab's fcdf function. 
I'll fix this issue on github: https://github.com/NeuroStats this weekend. 


Best 
-Jorge 







De: Lars M. Rimol <lari...@gmail.com> 
Para: jorge luis <jbernal0...@yahoo.es> 
CC: Freesurfer support list <freesurfer@nmr.mgh.harvard.edu> 
Enviado: Jueves 19 de junio de 2014 5:01 
Asunto: Re: [Freesurfer] Linear Mixed Models in FS? 






Hi Jorge, 

Thank you! Yes this makes sense, because this confirms that the second 
covariate in fact tests for an effect across all groups, just as I expected. 

Now, there's another problem with these analyses: Please consider the attached 
figure lh_model1_01000_interaction_nopatch_lateral.tif , which shows a p-map 
(cortical 

area, smoothed with 30 mm fwhm) with two gray regions in the temporal lobe and 
the insula/IFG in the middle of highly significant regions. There is no darker 
blue transition 

into the non-significant regions. These gray regions appear to be artifacts 
based on eye balling of the maps. I checked the output of the significance 
testing in those regions and it 

appears that the output of this formula (in lme_mass_f.m) is extremely low: 
pval(i) = 1-fcdf(Fstat,szC,m); 

I assume there may be numerical instability when pval becomes extremely low? 
Could that explain this? 

I changed the code so that if 

1-fcdf(Fstat,szC,m) is zero or less than 1e-15, then pval(i) = 
max(1-fcdf(Fstat,szC,m),1e-15); 

(or, if it's negative pval(i) = min(1-fcdf(Fstat,szC,m),-1e-15) ) 

If it's not, then the old code applies: pval(i) = 1-fcdf(Fstat,szC,m); 

This seems to have fixed the problem as the figure 
model1_area_lh_01000_winteraction_wpatch_lateral.tif shows. Again, based on 
eye-balling the maps. 

I have seen this problem in several data sets, both cortical and subcortical 
data. In all cases using a lower limit for 1-fcdf(Fstat,szC,m) - 
either 1e-15 or 1e-20 - seems to fix the problem. 

Do you concur that the problem is numerical instability and is this a good way 
to fix it? 


Thank you! 

yours, 
LMR 






On Wed, Jun 18, 2014 at 3:49 PM, jorge luis < jbernal0...@yahoo.es > wrote: 







Hi LMR 


If the interaction term is not statistically significant then there is no 
evidence of the existence of two different groups in your sample (as far as the 
longitudinal trajectory is concerned they are all controls, the groups might be 
different at baseline though). This is why main effects are only tested after 
the interactions have been previously tested. In your model a common “base time 
slope” is assumed for both groups (the second coefficient) but you are also 
explicitly modeling the possibility of the case-group slope being exceeding the 
control/common base slope by an extra quantity. That quantity is the 
interaction term. 


Hope this makes sense 


Best 
-Jorge 










De: Lars M. Rimol < lari...@gmail.com > 
Para: FS maling list < freesurfer@nmr.mgh.harvard.edu > 
Enviado: Miércoles 18 de junio de 2014 8:57 
Asunto: Re: [Freesurfer] Linear Mixed Models in FS? 







Hi Jorge, 

Thank you for your reply! 

Again considering the same model from before 

intercept(random effect) + centered age + group + group x centered age + sex 


I think what is confusing me is that I think of the [centered age] covariate as 
a column vector which will contain the centered age of both the control- and 
the case group. This is how it would be seen in a GLM using the same design 
matrix. Therefore it is difficult for me to understand how the contrast [0 1 0 
0 0] can inform us about the control group alone. To me it would seem obvious 
that this contrast tells me something about the effect of [centered age] on the 
whole of the sample, regardless of the group each subject belongs to. 

On the other hand, I agree with you that the interaction term could tell us 
something about the effect of [centered age] on the case-group by considering 
the contrast vector [0 0 0 1 0]. 



Just for the sake of argument, please consider the following model 

intercept(random effect) + (1-group) x centered age + group + group x centered 
age + sex 



and compare to the one presented above. Here (1-group) is a column vector which 
is 1 where the [group] vector is 0, and vice versa. This difference ensures 
that the second term only includes numbers from the control-group. Applying the 
contrast [0 1 0 0 0] to this model, would this not be more appropriate for 
consider the effect of [centered age] on the control-group alone? 

Given your previous answers I suspect I'm missing something here, but I would 
greatly appreciate if you could please take the time to explain to me how I've 
gone wrong. 

Thanks! 
LMR 


------------------------------------------------------------------- 
Hi LMR 

1) Yes, you should 
use n-1 (0/1) covariates to model n groups. Eg. (Controls, Case 1 
and Case 2) the model would be: 

intercept(random 
effect) + centered age?(might be a random effect too)?+ ?Case1 + Case1 x 
centered age + Case2 + 
Case2 x centered age + sex 

2)In model: 

intercept(random 
effect) + centered age + group + group x centered age + sex 

the fourth coefficient is 
the interaction term that represents the difference in slope between 
the patient and control groups. This is easy to see from your 
Question 1 equations. It's also easy to see from those equations 
that [0 1 0 0 0] tests the effect of time in the control group since 
the group-specific slope is only equal to the coefficient of the time covariate 
(the 
second covariate) when the group covariate is zero (i.e for the 
controls). 


Hope this makes 
sense. 

Best 
-Jorge 
-- 

yours, 

Lars M. Rimol, PhD 
St. Olavs Hospital 
Trondheim, 
Norway 
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-- 

yours, 

Lars M. Rimol, PhD 
St. Olavs Hospital 
Trondheim, 
Norway 



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