On 6/17/2011 8:55 AM, Hyman Rosen wrote:
On 6/17/2011 8:47 AM, Alexander Terekhov wrote:
The contradiction would be if the court would order not to pay
attorney's fees.
Do you believe that at the conclusion of a case, one party pays the
attorney fees of another unless a court instructs them not to do so?
How odd.
How else do you believe a badly losing plaintiff gets a winning
defendant to agree to a stipulated Rule 41 voluntary dismissal "WITH
PREDJUDICE"?
Sincerely,
RJack :)
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