Hi, Jasmin,

The rule seems to be that if in the singular base word the letter in
question has a vowel underneath it, then, in the plural
the sheva is a sheva na. So, since the sing. is kelokel, with tsere under
the kof, then the plural should be kelokelim.
See:
https://urldefense.com/v3/__https://hebrew-academy.org.il/2013/09/01/**I-**G-**K/__;16LXmden16jXmdeq15XXqNeq15TXoNeZ16fXldeT!!KGKeukY!kfyp455q_TPBY6DDi9TdY5pTxdZfi2EiioJlp5K5FC7qtCWMurG2Lb2MsMFy_NzmQJio$
 
Hope this helps,
Best,
Barry


On Mon, Feb 7, 2022 at 11:29 PM Shinohara, Jasmin via Heb-naco <
heb-naco@lists.osu.edu> wrote:

> Hi, all,
>
>
>
> The above is found in a couple titles by Toviyah Rubner (and is cited from
> him in the E.-Sh. entry for word). It has historically been romanized as
> ḳeloḳelim. My question is, why is the sheva under the second kof
> romanized as though it were a vocalized sheva? As a sheva merahef, wouldn’t
> it be ignored and the word romanized ḳeloḳlim?
>
>
>
> Looking forward to your input.
>
>
>
> Thanks, Jasmin
>
>
>
> ---
>
> Jasmin Shinohara
>
> Hebraica Cataloging Librarian
>
> University of Pennsylvania
>
> 131 Van Pelt-Dietrich Library Center
>
> 3420 Walnut Street
>
> Philadelphia, PA 19104-6206
>
> T. 215-746-6397
>
> jsh...@upenn.edu
>
> Coordinator, Hebraica BIBCO, NACO, & SACO Funnels
>
>
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