On Fri, Aug 28, 2009 at 8:31 AM, Raj Mathur<r...@linux-delhi.org> wrote:
> On Friday 28 Aug 2009, Anupam Jain wrote:
>> However I wonder about the proprietary compiler itself. if it's based
>> on GCC, it needs to be licensed under GPL, even if it's distributed
>> in-house. So any developer who works for this company and has lawful
>> access to the executable can demand the sources and then distribute
>> these sources to the general public under GPL.
>
> Nope.  Distribution is specifically deemed to be to III-parties, not
> within an organisation.  If your company is using a proprietary version
> of a GPL software in-house, you as an employee cannot demand the sources
> since the software has not been distributed to you.

This makes me realise that my understanding of "distribution" as
defined by the GPL is not as clear as I thought.

But then again, perhaps it is the license itself that is ambiguous and
the meaning of "distribution" depends on how it is interpreted by the
local courts.

-- Anupam

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