R. Scott Perry wrote:

> As you point out, this isn't an easy task (it's harder than determining
the
> spam capture rate, which is actually complex).  The main problem is
getting
> a diverse set of legitimate E-mail.  Also, it depends on your definition
of
> false positives -- for example, every legitimate E-mail (whether or not it
> is marked as spam) gets read here (because of the business we are in, we
> must receive all E-mail, and not block any -- instead, we use Declude
> JunkMail to sort out the spam), so some people would (incorrectly, in my
> opinion) say we have 0% false positives.

Agreed. If one is to accept *all* inbound mail, one can thus claim exactly
0% FP because there are no "positives" at all :) (A company -- corporate or
ISP -- having no antispam whatsoever could spin this as a marketing
advantage!) Conversely, if one blocks *all* inbound e-mail, the
[*apparently*] very same 0% FP ratio applies since no legitimate e-mail is
falsely flagged as spam -- because no e-mail ever arrives... This is why it
is important to have a precise definition of exactly what is an FP ratio in
terms that are scientifically (or at least statistically) founded and
accepted by the antispam "industry". I believe that you have explained this
most satisfactorily in your earlier postings.

> >More to the point, am I also correct that the aforementioned
> >"single-criterion/reject-at-the-envelope-level" solution *cannot* ever
give
> >me *any* measurable FP ratio?
>
> Correct.
>
>                                                     -Scott

Thanks; this is what I was trying to confirm for myself. There are a few
valid ways to "rightfully" reject inbound mail based on the pre-DATA
envelope transaction and I think that we both agree on this. My point was
and is that by doing so, you cannot derive an FP ratio at all. This may not
matter to some mail admins and this is fine (for them) as it is their
choice, informed or not. Speaking for myself only, I'd rather be informed :)

Guy
--
Guy Isabel     <[EMAIL PROTECTED]>


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